# General Knowledge MCQs For PSC & CSS Exams

1. The speed of rotation of the earth is the highest___?
(a) Along the equator (b)along the topic of cancer(c)along the arctic circle(d)at the north pole.
Answer is = D
2. Flash Point term is related with the
(a) study of water(b) Study of Rocks (c) Study of Climate (d) study of Dew drops
Answer is = C
3. About 50%of the world population is concentrated between the latitudes of____?
(a)5 N and 20 N (b)20 N and 40 N (c)40 N and 60 N (d)20 S and 40 S.
Answer is = D
4. The time at any point on the earth’s surface calculated when the sun reaches its highest position in the Sky is known as___?
(a)local time (b)sidereal time (c)solar time (d)standard time.
Answer is = A
5. what will be the time at a place situated at 70 W when it is 4 p.m. at a place situated at 35 E__?
(a)5 p. m (b)8 p.m. (c)11 a.m.(d)9 a.m.
Answer is = D
6. When the local time is 12.00 noon and the time at Greenland Meridian is 8.00 a.m. The local longitude is _____?
(a)60 east (b)60 west (c)45 west (d)45 east.
Answer is = A
7. How many countries are land locked countries in the world ____?
(a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 44.
Answer is = D
8. In the troposphere the normal lapse rate i.e., the decrease in temperature with height is of the order of ______?
(a)1 C for 155 meters (b)1 C for 160 meters (c)1 C for 165 meters (d)1 C for 170 meters.
Answer is = C
9. A land locked country in Africa is___________?
(a)Zambia (b)Tanzania (c)Nigeria (d)Somalia.
Answer is = A
10. In which one of the following positions does the earth revolve at a faster rate around the sun_________?
(a) Summer solstice (b) winter solicits (c) autumnal equinox (d) vernal equinox.
Answer is = D
11. If a magnetic needle is freely suspended at the geographic north pole_________________?
(A)the needle will remain vertical with its N-pole downward(B)the needle will remain almost vertical with its N-pole downward(C)the needle will remain vertical with its S-pole downward(d)the needle will remain almost vertical with its S –pole downward.
Answer is = D
12.South pole is located in the continent of ____?
(a)Africa (b)Australia (c)Asia (d)Antarctica
Answer is = D
13. Which mountain system lies between the black sea and Caspian sea____?
(A)Appalachians (B) Caucasus (C) Pyrenees (d) atlas.
Answer is = B
14. The atmosphere pressure at any place is measured by___?
(a) Altimeter (b) pressure meter (C) Pyrenees (D) thermometer.
Answer is = C
15.Which of these cities once served as the capital of Japan____?
(A) Kobe (B) Kyoto (C) Okinawa (D) sendia.
Answer is = B
16. Which peninsula lies between the black sea and sea of Azov ____?
(A)Crimean (B) Iberian (C) Kamchatka (D) Yucatan
Answer is = A
17. On the bank of which river is the city of London located_____?
(a)Seven (B) Thames (c) Avon (D) number.
Answer is =B
18. Which among the following trees is considered the tallest in the word?
(A) Cedar (B) redwood (C) eucalyptus (D)date palm.
Answer is = B
19. Which country was earlier known as siam______?
(A) Indonesia (B) Somalia (C)Thailand (D)Myanmar
Answer is = C
20. which is the largest country in the Arabian peninsula ____?
(A)Oman (B)Yemen (c) Saudi Arabia (D) Kuwait.
Answer is = C
21. which river forms the grand canyon in the united states____?
(A)Mississippi (B)Hudson (C)Colorado Columbia .
Answer is =
22. which of these cloud forms in found at the highest altitudes____?
(A)Billow (B) Nacreous (C) Noctilucent (D) Pile us.
Answer is = C
23. Thickness of atmosphere around the earth is _____?
(A) 100 km (B) 130 km (C) 145 km (D) 195 km.
Answer is = C
24. Atmosphere around the earth maintains its _____?
(A) Temperature (B) pressure (C) density (D) shape
Answer is =A
25. The layers of atmosphere are divided in to____?
(A) Two parts (B) 3 parts (C) 4 parts (D) 5 parts.
Answer is = C
26. Above the earth’s surface troposphere extends to a height of_____?
(A) 08 km (B) 12 km (C) 15 km (D) 20 km .
Answer is =C
27. Which next layer is above the troposphere ___?
(A) Mesosphere (B) stratosphere (C) thermosphere (D) space
Answer is = B
28. The mesosphere extended above the earth’s surface is up to ____?
(A) 60 km (B) 65 km (C) 80 km (D) 85 km .
Answer is = D
29. Which one of the following phenomena occurs when water vapor condenses around a particle of smoke____?
(A) Fog (B) hail (C) mist (D) smog
Answer is = D
30. Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the ____?
(A) Seeds have very high oil content (B) oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids
(C) Oil has long shelf-life (D) oil has very low Erucic acid content.
Answer is = B
31. Lines joining places of the same earthquake intensity are known as __?
(A) Isohyets (B) isohels (C) Isoseismal lines (D) isohalines
Answer is = C
32. Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda _____?
(A) Chad (B) Malawi (C) Victoria (D) Zambezi
Answer is = C
33.Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation__?
(A) U.S.A. (B) India (C) China (D) Canada
Answer is = B
34. Which form of iron has got the highest carbon content ___?
(A) Mild steel (B) stainless steel (C) wrought iron (D) cast iron
Answer is =
35. Rows of trees grown along the coastal areas to reduce the impact of cyclones are known as_____?
(A) Wind breaks (B) protection (C) mangroves (D) shelter belts
Answer is = C
36. What kind of soil is treated with gypsum to make it suitable for cropping ___?
(A)Alkaline(B)acidic(C)waterlogged(D)soil with excessive clay content
Answer is = A
37.Which one of the following is a metamorphic rock ______?
(A) Granite (B) basalt (C) marble (C) sandstone
Answer is = C
38. According to Simon Winchester’s book, tectonic are there in the earth _____?
(A) 15 (B) 29 (C) 36 (D) 32
Answer is = C
39.All the following are planetary winds except ______?
Trade winds(B)the westerly’s(C) polar winds (d) the monsoon winds
Answer is = D
40. Which one of the following parts of clod deserts and continents is correctly matched ___?
(A) Atacama …..South America (B)Gobi……Asia (C)Kalahari….. Africa (D)great sandy …. Australia
Answer is = B
41.The production of rubber tree is better adopted to areas where the climate is ?
(A)Warm and humid (B)warm and dry (C)cool and moist (D)cool and dry
Answer is = A
42.Gulf streams are caused by _______?
(A)Cyclone(B)temperature(C)ocean pressure(D)difference in water level
Answer is = C
43. All vital atmospheric process leading to various climatic and weather conditions take place in the ___?
(A) troposphere (B) ionosphere (C) exosphere (D) stratosphere
Answer is = A
44. The minimum land area recommended for forest cover to maintain proper ecological balance is ______?
(A) 25% (B) 33% (C) 43 % (D) 53%
Answer is = A
45. Which one of the following scholars suggested the earth’s origin from gases and just particles __________?
(A) James jeans (B) H.Alfven (C) f. Hoyle (D) O.Schmidt.
Answer is = D
46. The theory that refers to an explosion about 10 to 15 billion years ago which most astronomers believe to be the origin of the universe is called ______?
(A)The red shift theory (B)Relativity theory (C)Big bang theory (D)Titanic theory
Answer is = C
47. Black holes are stellar object which___________?
(A) Emit black body radiation (B) have weak gravitational field (C) have intense gravitational field (D) have intense magnetic field
Answer is = C
48. Select the stranger in the group_______________?
(A) Cartograms (B) multiple bars (C) weather maps (D) pie diagrams
Answer is = C
49. The soil which cracks and shrinks most as it dries is____________________?
(A) Clayey soil (B) porous soil (C) sandy soil (C) loamy soil
Answer is = A
50. East Timor is now independent country, before independence it was part of _?
(A) Taiwan (B) Malaysia (C) Thailand (D) Indonesia
Answer is = D
51. Kosovo is now independent country, before its independence it was part of ______?
(A) Yugoslavia (B) Albania (C) Romania (D) Bulgaria
Answer is = A
52. On the day of the summer solstice in the northern hemisphere the length of day time on the Antarctic Circle is ________?
(A) 12 hours (B) 24 hours (C) Zero hours (D) 6 hours
Answer is = C
53. which of the following sequence represents correctly the different atmospheric layers from the earth’s surface __________?
(A) Stratosphere ‘troposphere,
ionosphere, tropopause
(B) Ionosphere tropopause
Troposphere stratosphere
(C) Troposphere tropopause
stratosphere ionosphere
(D) Stratosphere Troposphere
ionosphere tropopause.
Answer is = C
54. Days and nights are of equal duration on March 21 at ________?
(A) The tropic of cancer alone (B) the tropic of equator alone (C) the tropic of Capricorn alone (D) All parallel of latitude
Answer is =D
55. Which of the following in the most porous rock ________?
(A) Basalt (B) granite (C) sandstone (D) slate
Answer is = C
56. Weathering is ________?
(A) Breakdown or disintegration of rocks (B) Formation of soil by fine sand particles (C) breaking of the surface of land by flowing water (D) wearing down of rock surface.
Answer is = A
57. Which type of plants are adapted to grow under drought conditions _____________?
(A) Pteridophytes (B) xerophytes (C) tropophytes (D) hygrophytes
Answer is = B
58. Which of the following is the oldest rock __________?
(A) Quartzite (B) Ordovician (C) Carbonatities (D) Cambrian.
Answer is = B
59. Which of the following pairs is correct _________?
(A) Baghdad ——– Tigris
(B) Bonn ———- Danube
(C) Rome ——– Seine
(D) Paris ——– Tiber
Answer is = A
60. The leading producer of silver is _____________?
(A) U.S.A (B) Russia (C) Mexico (D) South Africa.
Answer is = C
61. The highest glade of coal whose surface is shining and has the highest calorific value is____?
(A) lignite (B) peat (C) bituminous (D) anthracite.
Answer is =D
62. If a place is located at 20 N , 80 E in which of the following continents does it lie _____?
(A) Africa (B) Asia (C) Europe (D) North America
Answer is = B
63. Which of the following is the region of winter rainfall _____________?
(A) Mediterranean (B) Tropical (C) Arctic (D) Monsoon
Answer is = A
64. Which of the following is a great circle_________?
(A) The arctic circle (B) the tropic of cancer (C) the equator (D) the tropic of Capricorn
Answer is = C
65. Availability of ample water is one of the important considerations in the location of ____?
(A) Cotton textile industry (B) paper industry (C) electronic industry (D) automobile industry
Answer is = B
66. Soil formed by deposition of silt brought by rivers is ______________?
(A) Alluvial soil (B) red soil (C) black soil (D) pod sols
Answer is = A
67. Which of the following statements about ozone layer is correct __________?
(A) it converts UV radiations in to electrical energy (B) it protects the earth’s life forms by preventing the damaging UV (C) it is of uniform thickness (D) none of the above
Answer is = B
68. High tides at antipodes are caused due to _________?
(A) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun (B) Gravitational pull of the sun (C) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun (D) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun and the moon.
Answer is = A
69. Which of the following types of rainfall is typical of equatorial regions _____________?
(A) Convectional (B) Orographic (C) Cyclonic (D) None of these.
Answer is = A
70. Change in season is caused due to ____________?
(A) Revolution of earth (B) rotation of earth (C) inclination of earth (D) none of these
Answer is = A
71. Winds generally blow from areas of ___________?
(A) Low pressure to that of high pressure (B) high pressure to that of low pressure (C) high pressure to that of moderate pressure (D) low pressure to that of moderate pressure .
Answer is = B
72. Which of the following soils is best suited for deep rooted crops___________?
(A) Red soil (B) Black soil (C) Laterite soil (D) alluvial soil
Answer is = B
73 .The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follow the 180 meridian is called_________?
(A) International date line (B) tropic of cancer (C) equator (D) prime meridian
Answer is = A
74. Which of the following countries has largest area in the world ___________?
(A) Canada (B) China (C) U.S.A (D) Russia
Answer is = D
75. Which of the following climate types is said to be characterized by three Eighties: 80 F of temperature, 80 per cent of humidity and 80 inches of rainfall____________?
(A) Monsoon climate (B) Equatorial climate (C) Mediterranean climate (D) temperate climate
Answer is = B
76 .When it is 8 p. m. in Tokyo what is the time at Panama canal which is located at 180 W of it _________?
(A) 4.00 p.m. (B) 8.00 a.m. (C) 12.00 a.m. (D) 12.00 noon
Answer is = B
77. Evergreen forests are found ______________?
(A) In the estuaries of great rivers (B) in the Himalayas above 3,000 ft. elevation (C) where the rainfall is between 30 and 40 (D) where the rain fall is between 80 and 120
Answer is =D
78. Which of the following is a kharif crop ______________?
(A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Gram (D) mustard
Answer is = B
79. Hail storm occurs in summer season due to the formation of clouds called ________?
(A) Cirrus (B) cumulus (C) cumulonimbus (D) cirrocumulus
Answer is = C
80. The seasonal reversal of winds is a phenomenon noticed in ______________?
(A) Monsoon climate (B) equatorial climate (C) Mediterranean climate (D) high lands
Answer is = A
81. Roaring forties are ___________?
(A) cyclonic westerly winds is northern hemisphere (B) spring tides(C) ocean current in northern hemisphere (D) steady north westerly anti-trade winds in southern hemisphere
Answer is = D
82. Humidity in the air is maximum in ____________?
(A) winter (B) summer (C) monsoon (D) autumn
Answer is = C
83. Sandstones belong to ______________?
(A) Argillaceous rocks (B) calcareous rocks (C) carbonaceous rocks (D) Arenaceous rocks
Answer is = D
84. The lunar eclipse occurs when ___________?
(A) Moon is between the earth and sun (B) Earth is between the sun and moon (C) Sun is between the earth and the moon (D) Earth is at right angles to the direction of the sun and the moon
Answer is = B
85. The high yielding varieties of crops possess which of the following characters____?
1. Ability to trap more solar energy
2. Ability to utilize more nutrients
3. High harvest index
4. Ability to use less water
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
Answer is = C
86. Contour is a measure of ___________?
(A) Topography (B) rainfall (C) temperature (D) pressure
Answer is = A
87. Latitude is a measure of _____________?
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 60 (D) 90
Answer is = D
88. There is a seven difference in the climates of northern and southern hemispheres.
Why_________?
(A) due to rotation of earth around its axis (B) Due to revolution of earth around the sun on its orbit (C) both of the above (D) none of the above
Answer is = B
89. The area associated with the greatest frequency of earthquakes is ____________?
(A) eastern coastal areas of Asia (B) northern coastal areas of Eurasia (C) west coast of north and south America (D) western coastal areas of Africa.
Answer is = C
90. Cloud burst means ______________?
(A) Formation of artificial rain (B) Presence of scattered flakes of cloud in the sky (C) Showing of seeds of a crop in a cloudy weather (D) Abnormally heavy downpour of rain associated with a thunderstorm.
Answer is = D
91. Which one of the following is an ore of iron ______________?
(A) Bauxite (B) hematite (C) limonite (D) gypsum
Answer is = B
92. Which one of the following is correct _____________?
(A) all longitudes are not great circles (B) all longitudes and equator are great circles (C) all latitudes and Greenwich meridian are great circles (D) all latitudes and longitudes are great circles
Answer is = B
93. The rocks which are formed by direct cooling and solidification of magma are called______?
(A) Sedimentary rocks (B) Derivative rocks (C) Igneous rocks (D) Metamorphic rocks
Answer is = C
94. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Mediterranean type of climate ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬____?
(A) warm winters (B) cold and dry summers (C) warm and dry summers and cold and wind winters (D) warm and wet summers and cold and dry winters.
Answer is = C
95.The shortest day in northern hemisphere is _________?
(A) 25 December (B) 22 December (C) 15 June (D) 22 June
Answer is = B
96.The earth revolves round the sun in its orbit by approx _________?
(A) 5 per day (B) 2 per day (C) 1 per day (D) 3 per day
Answer is = C
97. Vasco day game discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope in _______________?
(A) 1494 (B) 1498 (C) 1502 (D) 1506
Answer is = B
98. one degree of longitude on the equator is equal to a distance of __________?
(A) 96 km (B) 80 km (C) 55 km (D) 112 km
Answer is = D
99. Which of the following countries has longest land frontiers ____________?
(A) Burma (B) Russia (C) China (D) Laos.
Answer is = C
100. Which of the following is not a Scandinavian country___________?
(A) Denmark (B) Belgium (C) Norway (D) none of these
Answer is = B

# Information About World Secret Agencies

CIA intelligence agency of USA was established in
A. 1943
B. 1944
C. 1946
D. 1947
Answer is = D
AMAN is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = A
CIA is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = D
MI 6 is the secret agency of?
A. UK
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = A
MOSSAD is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = A
RAW is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. India
D. USA
Answer is = C
KGB is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. Russia
Answer is = D
MI 5 is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. UK
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
SCOTLAND YARD is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. UK
Answer is = D
MUST is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. Sweden
Answer is = D
MIT is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Turkey
D. USA
Answer is = C
DST is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Morocco
D. USA
Answer is = C
KHAD is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Afghanistan
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
FIA is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Pakistan
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
ISI is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Pakistan
D. USA
Answer is = C
PENTAGON is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = D
SUPO is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. Finland
Answer is = D
KENON is the secret agency of?
A. Kenya
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = A
NSO is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Nigeria
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
TRIPPLE SSS is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Iraq
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
NSA is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = D
MAD is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Germany
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
FSB is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Russia
D. USA
Answer is = C
MOIS is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Iran
D. USA
Answer is = C
BND is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Germany
D. USA
Answer is = C
BIN is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Indonesia
D. USA
Answer is = C
LEKEM is the secret agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = A
SVR is the secret agency of?
A. Russia
B. Canada
C. France
D. USA
Answer is = A
FAPSI is the Intelligence agency of?
A. Israel
B. Russia
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
CIFAS is the Intelligence agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Spain
D. USA
Answer is = C
SHABAK is the Intelligence agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = A
CNI is the Intelligence agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Spain
D. USA
Answer is = C
VEVAK is the Intelligence agency of?
A. Israel
B. Iran
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = B
FBI is the investigation agency of?
A. Israel
B. Canada
C. Italy
D. USA
Answer is = D
The headquarter of MI 5 is located in
A. Paris
B. Congo
C. London
D. Manchester
Answer is = C

# Educational Assessment Mcqs For PSC Headmaster & Teaching Exams

Assessment in Education
Instrument used for measuring sample of behavior is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = A

Limited to quantitative description of pupil’s performance is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = B

The purpose of the evaluation is to make?
A. Decision
B. Prediction
C. Judgment
D. Opinion
Answer is = C

The purpose of evaluation is to make judgment about educational?
A. Quanitiy
B. Quality
C. Teme period
D. Age
Answer is = B

Evaluation that monitors learning progress is?
A. Placement evaluation
B. Formative evaluation
C. Diagnostic evaluation
D. Summative evaluation
Answer is = B

A formal and systematic procedure of getting information is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = A

The process of obtaining numerical value is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = B

A sum of questions is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = A

The first step in measurement is?
A. Decision of what to measure
B. Development of the test
C. Administering the test
D. None
Answer is = A

The purpose of formative evaluation is?
A. Decision of what to measure
B. Development of the test
C. Administering the test
D. Monitoring progress of students
Answer is = D

To assess achievement at the end of instruction is?
A. Placement Assessment
B. Formative Assessment
C. Summative Assessment
D. Diagnostic Assessment
Answer is = C

Vast of all in scope?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = D

The least in scope is?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
Answer is = A

Permanent difficulties in learning are investigated in?
A. Placement Assessment
B. Formative Assessment
C. Summative Assessment
D. Diagnostic Assessment
Answer is = D

Broader in meaning is?
A. Aims
B. Objectives
C. Instructional objectives
D. Specific Objectives
Answer is = A

Procedures used to determine person abilities is?
A. Maximum performance test
B. Typical performance test
C. Norm performance test
D. Criterion performance test
Answer is = A

In norm referenced test the comparison is between?
A. Groups
B. Individuals
C. Areas
D. Interest
Answer is = B

In which question marking will be more reliable?
A. Completion
B. Short answer
C. Multiple choice question
D. Essay
Answer is = C

Facility value of less than 0.20 means?
A. Item is too easy
B. Item is difficult
C. Item is acceptable
D. Item is easy
Answer is = B

Objective type question have advantage over essay type because such questions?
A. Are easy to prepare
B. Are eay to solve
C. Are easy to mark
D. None
Answer is = C

Discrimination value of more than 0.4 means
A. Item is good
B. Item is acceptable
C. Item is weak
D. None
Answer is = B

Test involving the construction of certain patterns are called?
A. Intelligence test
B. Performance tests
C. Scholastic test
D. None
Answer is = B

In multiple choice items the stem of the items should be?
A. Large
B. Small
C. Meaningful
D. None
Answer is = C

Which appropriate verb will you use to make an objective behavioral?
A. To know
B. To appreciate
C. To understand
D. To construct
Answer is = D

Objectives representing the purposes of instruction of a teacher are called?
A. Performance
B. Instructional
C. Attainment
D. None
Answer is = B

Running description of active behavior of a student as observed by the teacher is?
A. Anecdotal record
B. Autobiography
C. Interview
D. None
Answer is = A

A test very popular with class room teacher is?
A. True false test
B. Multiple choices
C. Matching
D. Completion test
Answer is = B

Frequently used tools of summative evaluation are?
A. Test
B. Teacher observation
C. Daily assignment
D. None
Answer is = A

The most commonly used guessing correction formula to predict and control is?
A. S=R-W
B. S=R-W/N-1
C. S=R-w/2-1
D. None
Answer is = B

The summative evaluation is?
A. Diagnostic
B. Cerifying judgment
C. Continous
D. None
Answer is = B

The difference between maximum and minimum values is?
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Range
D. None
Answer is = C

The number of score lying in a class interval is?
A. Mid oint
B. Quartiles
C. Class
D. Frequencies
Answer is = D

A multiple choice question is composec of question referred as?
A. Stem
B. Distracter
C. Foil
D. Response
Answer is = A

In a norm referenced test which item is best?
A. Item difficulty is near zero
B. Item difficulty is near 100
C. Item difficulty is near 70
D. Item difficulty is near 50
Answer is = D

Which question has increasing objectivity of marking?
A. Unstructured essay
B. Structured essay
C. Short answer
D. Multiple type questions
Answer is = D

The most widely used format on standardized test in USA is?
A. Unstructured essay
B. Structured essay
C. Short answer
D. Multiple type questions
Answer is = D

Which questions are difficult to mark with reliability?
A. Unstructured essay
B. Structured essay
C. Short answer
D. Multiple type questions
Answer is = A

Projective techniques are used to measure?
A. Aptitude
B. Intelligence
C. Knowledge
D. Personality
Answer is = D

Test meant for prediction on a certain criterion are called?
A. Aptitude test
B. Intelligence
C. Knowledge
D. Personality
Answer is = A

Kuder Richardson method is used to estimate?
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Usability
Answer is = A

Value that divides the data into two equal parts is?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. None
Answer is = B

The test measures what we intend to measure. This quality of the test is called?
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Usability
Answer is = B

The length of a test is an important factor in obtaining a representative?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Sample
Answer is = D

Meidan of 1,2,4,5,2,3, is ?
A. 2
B. 5
C. 3.5
D. None
Answer is = C

The test made to compare the performance of student with the other students is called?
A. Criterion reference
B. Norm reference
C. Achievement
D. None
Answer is = B

The summative evaluation is used?
A. At the end of the program
B. At the middle of the program
C. At the start of the program
D. None
Answer is = A

The appearance of normal curve resembles with?
A. U
B. Bell
C. V
D. None
Answer is = B

The alternative name of the “table of spectification” is?
A. Test Blue Print
B. Test Construction
C. Test Administration
D. Test Scoring
Answer is = A

”table of specification” helps in?
A. Test development
B. Test Construction
C. Test Administration
D. Test Scoring
Answer is = A

The supply type test item is?
A. True / False items
B. Matching items
C. M.C.Q items
D. Completion items
Answer is = D

Alternative response item is?
A. True / False items
B. Right / wrong
C. Correct / incorrect
D. All above
Answer is = D

How many columns matching items have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Four
D. Five
Answer is = B

The item in the column for which a match is sought is?
A. Premise
B. Response
C. Destructor
D. None
Answer is = A

Identifying relationship between two things is demonstrated by?
A. True / False items
B. Matching items
C. M.C.Q items
D. Completion items
Answer is = B

The statement of problem in M.C .Qs is?
A. Premise
B. Response
C. Stem
D. None
Answer is = C

The correct option in M.C.Q is?
A. Answer
B. Premise
C. Response
D. Destructor
Answer is = A

The incorrect options in M.C.Q are?
A. Answer
B. Premise
C. Response
D. Destructor
Answer is = D

The most widely applicable test item is?
A. True / False items
B. Matching items
C. M.C.Q items
D. Completion items
Answer is = C

The type of essay item in which contents are limited is?
A. Restricted Response Questions
B. Extended Response Questions
C. Matching items
D. M.C.Q items
Answer is = A

The ability to select organize, integrate and evaluate ideas is demonstrated by?
A. Restricted Response Questions
B. Extended Response Questions
C. Matching items
D. M.C.Q items
Answer is = B

The Analysis of items is necessary in?
A. Standardized Test
B. Essay Type Test
C. Objective type test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is = A

Which one is not the type of test of test by purpose?
A. Standardized Test
B. Essay Type Test
C. Objective type test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is = B

The type of the test by method is?
A. Standardized Test
B. Essay Type Test
C. Objective type test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is = C

Student’s performance is compared with other students in?
A. Standardized Test
B. Essay Type Test
C. Objective type test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is = D

Student performance is compared with clearly defined learning tasks in?
A. Standardized Test
B. Essay Type Test
C. Criterion reverenced test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is = C

Test that measure learning outcome of students is
A. Achievement test
B. Aptitude test
C. Criterion reverenced test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is =A

The tests designed to predict future performance is?
A. Achievement test
B. Aptitude test
C. Criterion reverenced test
D. Norm referenced test
Answer is =B

The founder of modern intelligent tests was?
A. Alfred Binet
B. Stern
C. Gulford
D. None
Answer is = A

The formula to determine I.Q was presented by?
A. Alfred Binet
B. Stern
C. Gulford
D. None
Answer is = B

I.Q of a student having same physical and mental age will be?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 50
D. 140
Answer is = A

The I.Q of a student having twelve years mental age and tem years physical age will be?
A. 100
B. 120
C. 50
D. 140
Answer is = B

The quality of test that measures “what it claims to measure” is?
A. Validity
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = A

The characteristic of a test to siscriminate between high achievers and low achievers is?
A. Validity
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = B

If the scoring of the test is not effected by any factor, quality of test is called?
A. Validity
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = C

The quality of test to give same scores when administered at different occasions is?
A. Validity
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = D

If the sample of the question in the test is sufficiently large enough, the quality of test is?
A. Adequacy
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = A

The quality of test showing ease of time, cost, administration and interpretation is called?
A. Usability
B. Differentiability
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = A

Facility index of an item determines?
A. Ease or difficulty
B. Discrimination power
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = A

High and low achievers are sorted out by?
A. Ease or difficulty
B. Discrimination power
C. Objectivity
D. Reliability
Answer is = B

Test item is acceptable which its faculty index /difficulty level ranges from?
A. 30-70 %
B. 70 %
C. 30%
D. None
Answer is =A

Test item is very easy when value of faculty index/ difficulty level is higher than?
A. 30-70 %
B. 70 %
C. 30%
D. None
Answer is =B

Test item is very difficult when value of facility index/ difficulty level is less than?
A. 30-70 %
B. 70 %
C. 30%
D. None
Answer is =C

Discrimination power of an item is acceptable when its value ranges from?
A. 0.30 – 1
B. 1
C. 0.30
D. None
Answer is = A

Test item discriminates 100% when its value for discrimination is?
A. 0.30 – 1
B. 1
C. 0.30
D. None
Answer is = B

Test item cannot discriminate low achievers and high achievers when its value is lower than?
A. 0.30 – 1
B. 1
C. 0.30
D. None
Answer is = C

# Biology Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

1. What is the main purpose of white blood corpuscles?
A. To carry nutrients
B. To combat infection
C. To carry oxygen
D. To give strength
Answer is = B
2. Total volume of blood in a normal human being is
A. 5 – 6 liters
B. 3 – 4 liters
C. 8 – 10 liters
D. 10 – 12 liters
Answer is = A
3. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Kidneys
D. Heart
Answer is = B
4. Blood does not coagulate inside the body to the presence of
A. Fi brin
B. Heparin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Plasma
Answer is = B
5. Lungs are situated in the
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Buccal cavity
C. Pericardinal cavity
D. Thoracic cavity
Answer is = D
6. How many numbers of bones in the human body of an adult ?
A. 210
B. 206
C. 250
D. 450
Answer is = B
7. The pancreas secretes
A. Insulin
B. Vatiman A
C. Bile juice
D. None
Answer is = A
8. The seat of memory in the human brain is located in the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebrum
C. Cortex
D. Cerebellum
Answer is = C
9. Tibia is a bone found in the
A. Arm
B. Skull
C. Leg
D. Face
Answer is = C
10. The main function of the kidney is
A. To control blood pressure
B. To control body temperature
C. To remove waste products from the body
D. To help in digestion of food
Answer is = C
11. The strongest muscle in the human body is found in
A. hands
B. neck
C. buttocks
D. legs
Answer is = C
12. What is gene?
A. Sleep inducing drug
B. Unit of heredity
C. A type of body cell
D. A kind of vitamin
Answer is = B
13. The function of haemoglobin is
A. To transport oxygen
B. Destruction of bacteria
C. Prevention of anaemia
D. Utilization of energy
Answer is = A
14. A vegetable containing sulphur is
A. Potato
B. Cabbage
C. Brinjal
D. Pumpkin
Answer is = B
15. Enzymes help in
A. Respiration
B. Digestion of food
C. Immune system
D. Reproduction
Answer is = B
16. Ptyalin is an enzyme produced in the
A. Salivary glands
B. Pituitary gland
C. Thyroid glands
D. Pancreas
Answer is = A
17. Heightened emotion is caused by
A. Pituitary gland
B. Thyroid glands
C. Adrenal glands
D. Salivary glands
Answer is = C
18. The shortest bone in the human body is
A. Vertebrae
B. Stapes
C. Phalages
D. Metacarpals
Answer is = B
19. A balanced diet contains
A. Animals protein
B. Macro and micro nutrients
C. Food nutrients for growth and maintenance
D. Butter and ghee
Answer is = C
20. Wisdom teeth normally grow between the age of
A. 34-40
B. 17-30
C. 45-55
D. 10-17
Answer is = A
21. ‘Dossier’ means
A. the do of medicine
B. the actual things
C. relevant paper
D. unarranged papers
Answer is = C
22. Lack of—————causes diabetes
A. Sugar
B. Insulin
C. Calcium
D. Vitamins
Answer is = B
23. Biopsy is done on
A. tissue taken from a dead body
B. tissue taken from living body
C. blood from veins
D. blood from arties
Answer is = B
24. Triple antigen vaccine is given children to protect them against
A. polio
B. whooping cough
C. tuberculosis
D. contagious diseases
Answer is = B
25. A man weighing 96 Kg consists of approximately ————-liters of water
A. 50 litters
B. 66.5 litters
C. 82 litters
D. 42 litters
Answer is = B
26. What does blood consists of?
60 % plasma, 40 % crop
65 % plasma, 40 % crop
62 % plasma, 40 % crop
68% plasma, 45 % crop
Answer is = A

# Physics Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

1. What are primary colors?
A. Color of the rainbow
B. Color in the spectrum of the white light
C. colors which cannot be produced
D. color found in nature
Answer is = C
2. Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Total internal reflection
Answer is = D
3. Sun and the other stars are virtuously
huge nuclear explosion chambers producing
a large amount of head and light yet, we do not hear
any of the explosions because
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
C. the process involved in the interior of the sun and the starts relate to atomic and subatomic particles and not molecules and their vibration
D. the outer space is an absolute vacuum
Answer is = D
4. The advantage of AC over DC is that
A. it contain more electrical energy
B. it is free from voltage fluctuation
C. its generation coats much less
D. it can be transmitted over long distances
with minimum power loss
Answer is = D
5. What minimum escape velocity—
the speed necessary to counter earth gravity
and to break away from earth into outer—space required from a rocket to be lunched into space?
A. 5 km per second
B. 6 km per second
C.11 km per second
D.20 km per second
Answer is = C
6. Which of the following device is use to step down the voltage of alternating current?
A. induction cool
B. Transformers
C. Transistor
D. Rectifier
Answer is = B
7. The spherical shape of a small drop of a rain is due to
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. atmospheric pressure
D. gravity
Answer is = B
8. The blue color of sky can be attributed to
A. differential scattering of the sunlight by the atmosphere
B. Total internal reflection of the sunlight by the atmosphere
C. Absorption of sunlight
D. Refraction of sunlight by the atmosphere
Answer is = A
9. Which one of the following sets of properties
are relevant for an electrical fuse wire needed for normal application?
A. Thick wire, high melting point alloy, short length
B. thick wire, low melting point alloy, large length
C. Short length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
D. Large length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
Answer is = A
10. Ice floats on water because the density of Ice is less than that of water, Out of the following what part of giant icebergs remains above water?
A. 1/10
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. ¾
Answer is = B
11. Which one of the following coolers has the longest wavelength?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red
Answer is = D
12. Which one of the following can be used to focus sunlight?
A. Plan mirror
B. Concave lens
C. Concave mirror
D. Convex mirror
Answer is = C
13. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A. PVC
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. Graphite
Answer is = D
14. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Density
D. Vapour pressure
Answer is = A
15. Choke coil is coil of
A. High resistance and high inductance
B. Low resistance and high inductance
C.High resistance and low inductance
D. Low resistance and low inductance
Answer is = B
16. Conductors, insolators and semi- conductors differ from each other due to property of
A. ability of the current of carry
B. formation of crystal lattice
C. binding energy of their electrons
D. mutual width of their energy gaps
Answer is = D
17. On which principle dose the tape- recorder function?
A. Electromagnetic Induction
B. Electrovalency
C. Gay music’s law of combining volume
D. Boyle’s Law
Answer is = A
18. When a constant force is applied to a body it move with uniform
A. Momentum
B. Velocity
C. Speed
D. Acceleration
Answer is = B
19. The silvered surface of thermos flask prevents transfer of heat by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Reflection
D. Radiation
Answer is = D
20. When wind blows at high velocity roof tops are blown off because pressure
A. Outside is more than inside the roof
B. inside is more than outside the roof
C. Increases due to wind velocity
D. Is exerted by air from outside
Answer is = B
21. Tube light works on the principle of
A. Chemical effect of current
B. Heating effect of current
C. Magnetic effect of current
D. Discharge of electricity through gases
Answer is = D
22. in a refrigerator, cooling is produced by
A. The Ice is deposits on the freezer
B. The evaporation of a volatile liquid
C. The sudden expansion of a compressed gas
D. Increases stability
Answer is = B
23. On earth a removed from an electric bulb to prevent
A. Oxidation of tungsten filament
B. Bursting of bulb
C. Loss of light due to absorption
D.None of the above
Answer is = A
24. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
A. Avoid slipping
B. Increases speed
C. Reduce fatigue
D. Increases stability
Answer is = D
25. On earth a moving body ordinarily comes to rest by it self because of the
A. Law of inertia
B. Forces of friction
C. Conservation of momentum
D. Gravity
Answer is = B
26. When the door of an operating refrigerator is opened the temperature of the room will
A. Decreases
B. Remain unchanged
C. Fall down immediately
D. increases
Answer is = D
27. An electric motor is used to convert
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
B. Mechanical energy into kinetic energy
C. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
D. Higher voltage to lower voltage
Answer is = C
28. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because official
A. Potential difference between them
B. Mutual inductance between them
C. Electric forces between them
D. Magnetic forces between them
Answer is = C
29. Energy of a body due to its motion is called
A. Heat energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. potential energy
D. Light energy
Answer is = B
30. A moving ball stops due to action of
A. Nuclear forces
B. frictienal forces
C. Electric forces
D. Magnetic forces
Answer is = B
31. The energy stored in a stretched spring is
A. Potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy
Answer is = D
32. In cells chemical energy is transformed into
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy
Answer is = D
33. When body is dropped from a certain height, the gravitational potential energy is converted into
A. Elastic potential energy
B. chemical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. Light energy
Answer is = C
34. Human body converts chemical potential energy of food into
A. kinetic energy
B. Light energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. heat energy
Answer is = D
35. Electrochemical energy is required for the working of
A. Circulatory system
B. Nervous system
C. Excretory system
D. Digestive system
Answer is = B
36. When cat laps for its prey them the chemical energy presents in its muscles is converted to
A. potential energy then to light energy
B. potential energy then to kinetic energy
C.Electrical energy then to heat energy
D. Heat energy then to nuclear energy
Answer is = B
37. The energy stored in the fossil fuel is
A. chemical energy
B. heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Elastic potential energy
Answer is = A
38. Semi -conductor is such a substance, whose ability to conduct current lies in between
A. conductors and insulators
B. conductors and superconductors
C. insulators and superconductors
D. Wood and plastic
Answer is = A
39. Though the temperature inside lighted electric bulb is around 2700C, the filament dose not burn because:
A. The metal of which it is made is resistant to burning
B. the oxygen necessary for combustion (and bumming)
is not available as the bulb is evacuated and filled
with pure nitrogen or inert gases
C. it dose not burn in closed systems
D. it is made of non- metallic substance
Answer is = B
40. A remote control gadget (for TV etc.)
A. A small electromagnetic, that emits electromagnetic
B. A small oscillator that emits electric pluses
C. A small transmitter that emits infrared signals
D. None of these
Answer is = C

# Pakistan Rivers Mcqs For PCS Exams

How many rivers flow in Punjab Province?
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Five
Answer is = D
How many rivers flow in Sindh Province?
A. Four
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Nine
Answer is = A
How many rivers flow in Balochistan Province?
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Nine
Answer is = B
How many rivers flow in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa Province?
A. Six
B. Seven
C. Eight
D. Nine
Answer is = C
How many rivers are present in Pakistan?
A. 20
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
Answer is = D
Where Jehlum and Chenab rivers meet?
A. Rasol Pur
B. Panjnad
C. Trimmu
D. Khanki Headworks
Answer is = C
Where all rivers of Punjab enter into Indus?
A. Rasol Pur
B. Panjnad
C. Kot mitthan
D. Khanki Headworks
Answer is = C
Indus River is also known as
A. Abaseen River
B. Attock River
C. Skardu River
D. All of above
Answer is = D
Name the logest river of Pakistan?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = A
Which is the smallest river of Pakistan?
A. Indus
B. Ravi
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = B
Which is the longest river in the sub continent?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Barhamputra
D. Sutlej
Answer is = C
Name the most polluted river of Pakistan?
A. Indus
B. Ravi
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = B
Harrapa city is situated on the bank of
A. Indus
B. Ravi
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = B
Name the river in Pakistan whose annual flow is twice that of the Nile?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = A
From where the Indus River rises ?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Tibet
D. Sutlej
Answer is = C
Where the Indus River ends?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Arabean sea
D. Sutlej
Answer is = C
Most of the country rivers flow into
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = A
The whole agriculture of Pakistan depends on the water of which river?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. All of above
Answer is = D
The Bari Doab cannal originates from the river
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Ravi
D. Sutlej
Answer is = C
Into which the Kabul River falls?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = A
Name the tributaries of the Indus in the Punjab region
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. All of above
Answer is = D
Which of the following rivers is called “Nile of Pakistan” ?
A. Indus
B. Kabul
C. Chenab
D. Sutlej
Answer is = A
Panjkora River is located in the province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is =C
Bolan River is located in the Province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = D
Baran River is located in the Province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = B
Dast River is located in the Province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = D
Porali River is located in the Province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = D
Gomal and Kuram rivers are in the Province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = C
Rukshan river flows in the Province of
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = D
Kabul River is located in the Province
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
D. Balochistan
Answer is = C
What is the total length of Jehlum River?
A. 725 km
B. 254 km
C. 123 km
D. 785 km
Answer is = A
What is the total length of Ravi River?
A. 715 km
B. 254 km
C. 123 km
D. 785 km
Answer is = A
What is the total length of Indus River?
A. 2900 km
B. 2514 km
C. 1232 km
D. 7854 km
Answer is = A

# Mcqs About World Waterfalls

Which is the highest water fall in the world?
A. Angel
B. Tugela
C. Ribbon
D. None
Answer is =A
Which is the second highest water Fall in the world?
A. Angel
B. Tugela
C. Ribbon
D. None
Answer is =B
Which of following is called widows tears?
A. Lake
B. Waterfall
C. Island
D. None
Answer is =B
What is the height of Angel Water fall?
A. 3281 feet
B. 2356 feet
C. 3241 feet
D. 2589 feet
Answer is =A
Sutherland water fall is present in
A. New Zealand
B. South Africa
C. USA
D. none
Answer is =A
Tugela water fall is located in which country?
A. New Zealand
B. South Africa
C. USA
D. none
Answer is =B
Yosmite is a famous water fall of which country?
A. New Zealand
B. South Africa
C. USA
D. none
Answer is =C
Melegon water fall is located in which country?
A. New Zealand
B. South Africa
C. USA
D. none
Answer is =A

• # English Language Communication Skills Mcqs For Headmaster & Other PSC Exams

• 1. communication is derived from Latin word
(a) Community (b) Command
(c) Communis (d) Committee
Answer is =2. Community means
(a) Community (b) common
(c) Command (d) Committee
Answer is =3. Communication involves
(a) Telling (b) Listening
(c) Under standing (d) All of the above
Answer is =
4. exchange of ideas between two or more persons is
(a) Understanding (b) Telling
(c) communication (d) listening
Answer is = C
5. if there is no receiver, there is no
(a) communication (b) sender
(c) Message (d) Media
Answer is = A
6. Effective communication is that in which
(a) sender sends a complete message
(b) Receiver understands the message of sender
(c) Communication is oral
(d) communicaton is in writing
Answer is =B
7. Which is not the type of communication channel
(a) Speaking, listening
(b) Writing, reading
(c) Visualizing, observing
(d) Thinking, acting
Answer is =D
8. Communicatio without words is called
(a) Non- verbal communication
(b) Verbal
(c) Oral communication
(d) Written communication
Answer is =A
9. The number of English Language communication skills are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Answer is =C
10. English language communication skills are
(a) listening, thinking, speaking, reading
(b) listening, speaking, skimming, reading
(c) listening, speaking, reading, writing
(d) Thinking, skimming, reading, writing
Answer is =C
11. The first objective of teaching English is to develop
(a) Listening skill
(b) speaking skill
(c) Reading skill
(d) writing skill
Answer is =A
12. The numbers of kings of sounds are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Answer is =A
13. The kinds of sounds are
(a) Consonant sounds, oral sounds
(b) Oral sounds, vowel sound
(c) Verbal sounds, consonant sounds
(d) consonant sounds, vowel sounds
Answer is =D
14. phoneme ins the unit of sound
(a) Maximum (b) Minimum
(c) Medium (d) Large
Answer is =B
15. which one is not the articulator
(a) Face (b) Tongue
(c) Lips (d) Teeth
Answer is = a
16. Uttering with the force of breath is
(a) Consonant (b) Vowel
(c) phonems (d) stress
Answer is = d
17. the number of branches of phonetics are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Answer is = b
18. phonology is the study of how sounds are
(a) Produced (b) Transmitted
(c) Organized (d) Distinguished
Answer is = c
19. The highest level in linguistics is
(a) Phonology (b) phonetics
(c) Morphology (d) Pragmatics
Answer is = b
20. The numbers of vowels in English are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Answer is = d
21. The number of consonants in English are
(a) 15 (b) 21
(c) 26 (d) 31
Answer is = b
22. The convession of spoken words into written language is
(a) Transplantation (b) Transmission
(c) Transcription (d) Translation
Answer is = c
23. Transcription is also called as
(a) Notation (b) Citation
(c) Translation (d) Transmission
Answer is = a
24. Orthography means
(a) Speaking system
(b) Listening system
(c) Writing system
(d) Reading system
Answer is = c
25. The number of vowel sound is
(a) 5 (b) 15
(c) 20 (d) 26
Answer is = c
26. The number of consonant sound is
(a) 15 (b) 21
(c) 24 (d) 26
Answer is = c
27. The number of phonemes in standard British English is
(a) 5 (b) 20
(c) 24 (d) 44
Answer is = d
28. The letter which are written but not spoken are
(a) Vowels (b) Consonants
(c) small (d) silent
Answer is = d
29. A phoneme is a
(a) symbol (b) letter
(c) sound (d) word
Answer is = c
30. Linguistic is the scientific study of
(a) language (b) sounds
(c) words (d) sentence
Answer is = b
31. Language is a vehiclefor expression of feeling is
(a) formal view (b) structural view
(c) functional view (d) traditional view
Answer is = c
32. How language is structure is
(a) Functional view (b) srtucturla view
(c) communitive view (d) traditional view
Answer is = b
33. Arbitrariness means
(a) chosen with reason
(b) chosen without reason
(c) random selection
(d) rationale
Answer is = b
34. The spoken languages in the world are about
(a) 3000 (b) 3500
(c) 4000 (d) 4500
Answer is = a
35. According to david crystal, the total number of languages are
(a) 4809 (b) 5809
(c) 6809 (d) 7809
Answer is = c
36. According to david crystal, the number of language families is
(a) 50 (b) 100
(c) 150 (d) 200
Answer is = b
37. In listening, the following is involved
(a) Ears (b) tonguage
(c) mind (d) ears and mind
Answer is = d
38. Listening means
(a) lending ear
(b) lending ear to spoken words
(c) lending ear to spoken words to understand message
(d) hearing the sounds around
Answer is = c
39. The first step in listening is
(a) short term memory
(b) long term memory
(c) prediction
(d) perception and decoding
Answer is = d
40. STM stand for
(a) short time memory
(b) short term memory
(c) short time message
(d) short term message
Answer is = b
41. LTM stands for
(a) long term memory
(b) long time memory
(c) long term message
(d) long time message
Answer is = a
42. According to rivers and temperley, time devoted to listening in communication activities is
(a) 9% (b) 16%
(c) 30% (d) 45%
Answer is = d
43. Time devoted to speaking in communication activities is
(a) 9% (b) 16%
(c) 30% (d) 45%
Answer is = c
44. Time devoted to reading in communication activities is
(a) 9% (b) 16%
(c) 30% (d) 45%
Answer is = b
45. Time devoted to writing in communication activities is
(a) 9% (b) 16%
(c) 30% (d) 45%
Answer is = a
46. Glogal listening is also called as
(a) intensive listening
(b) extensive listening
(c) discrete listening
(d) listening for detail
Answer is = b
47. Discrete listening is also known as
(a) intensive listening (b) extensive listening
(c) global listening (d) listening for gist
Answer is = a
48. Listening amusing radio programme is
(a) discrete listening (b) listening for detail
(c) intensive listening (d) extensive listening
Answer is = d
49. Listening public announcements at railway station is
(a) global (b) lestening for gist
(c) intensive listening (d) extensive listening
Answer is = c
50. Dictation means
(a) test for writing (b) test for memory
(c) oral test (d) objective type test
Answer is = a
51. Cloze means
(a) close (b) missing part
(c) filled part (d) associated part
Answer is = b
52. Which one is the authentic material
(a) books (b) library
(c) real life (d) magazine
Answer is = c
53. Reading means
(a) recognition
(b) observing text
(c) comprehension
(d) recognition and comprehension
Answer is = d
54. Intonation is the use of
(a) words (b) sentences
(c) tunes (d) syllables
Answer is = c
55. Skimming is a type of
(a) writing (b) reading
(c) speaking (d) listening
Answer is = b
56. Skimming means reading quickly to know
(a) what is it about
(b) specific piece of information
(c) full under standing of text
(d) none of the above
Answer is = a
57. Scanning means reading quickly to know
(a) what is about
(b) specific piece of information
(c) full understanding of t ext
(d) all of the above
Answer is = b
58. Which of the titles fits thetext best is the example of
(a) skimming (b) scanning
(c) intensive reading (d) extensive vending
Answer is = a
59. See the time table and tell the break time is the example of
(a) skimming (b) scanning
(c) intensive reading (d) extensive vending
Answer is = b
60. Reading the question paper in the examination hall is the example of
(a) intensive reading (b) extensive vending
(c) scanning (d) skimming
Answer is = a
61. Novel reading is an example of
(a) intensive reading (b) extensive vending
(c) scanning (d) skimming
Answer is = b
62. 3 Rs stand for
(a) read. Recall. revise (b) read, revise, review
(c) read, recall, review (d) read, recall, write
Answer is = c
63. in SQ 3R, Q stands for
(a) srudy (b) studant
(c) summary (d) survev
Answer is = d
64. in SQ 3R, Q stands for
(a) quotation (b) quarter
(c) question (d) quota
Answer is =c
65. punctuation means
(a) marks (b) regularity
(c) sound (d) alphabets
Answer is = a
66. which one is correct spelling
(a) forgeting (b) forgetting
(c) foregetting (d) foregeting
Answer is = c
67. which one is correct spelling
(a) Supredent (b) suprident
(c) superentendent (d) superintendent
Answer is = d
68. “college” is a
(a) Noun (b) pronoun
(c) Abjective (d) verb
Answer is = a
69. “you” is a
(a) Noun (b) pronoun
(c) Abjective (d) verb
Answer is = b
70 “strong” is a
(a) Noun (b) pronoun
(c) Abjective (d) verb
Answer is = c
71. “read” is a
(a) Noun (b) pronoun
(c) Abjective (d) verb
Answer is = d
72. and is a
(a) Adverb (b) preposition
(c) conjunction (d) pronoun
Answer is = c
73. what a fine day it is!
(a) Assertive sentence
(b) imperative sentence
(c) optative sentence
(d) Exclamatory sentence
Answer is = d
74. “may you live long” is a
(a) Assertive sentence
(b) imperative sentence
(c) optative sentence
(d) Exclamatory sentence
Answer is = c
75. “Ahmad is going to school” is a
(a) Assertive sentence
(b) imperative sentence
(c) optative sentence
(d) Exclamatory sentence
Answer is = a

# Educational Curriculum Mcqs For Headmaster Exams

What is Curriculum?
A. Overall activities of an Institution
B. Objectivity
C. Classroom
D. Affective
Answer is = A
Important factor of curriculum is to help to achieve the?
A. Objectivity
B. Classroom
C. Affective
D. Students
Answer is = A
Responsible for the curriculum planning and development in Pakistani is?
A. Objectivity
B. Curriculum wing
C. Affective
D. Students
Answer is = B
Which domain of objectives is not being evaluated through our present system of examination?
A. Objectivity
B. Classroom
C. Affective
D. Students
Answer is = C
Which of the following is the nature of curriculum?
A. Conservative
B. Critical
C. Creative
D. All of these
Answer is =D
curriculum provides guidance for?
A. Student
B. School
C. Parents
D. Teacher
Answer is =A
Syllabus is a part of?
A. Student
B. School
C. Parents
D. Curriculum
Answer is =D
Benefits A.V Aids are that they?
A. Create interest
B. Reduce verbalization
C. Stimulate self activity
D. All of above
Answer is =D
Curriculum presents instructional material is stated by
A. Smith
B. Wheller
C. Jack kerr
D. None
Answer is =A
Relationship of subjects at different level is called?
A. Centralization
B. De centralization
C. Horizontal organization
D. Vertical organization
Answer is =D
An outline of the topics of a subject to the covered in specific time is called?
A. Curriculum
B. Course
C. Syllabus
D. None
Answer is = C
Curriculum organization used for different concepts at the same class is?
A. Vertical
B. Horizontal
C. Logical
D. None
Answer is = B
The category of Audio Visual Aids is?
A. Radio
B. Television
C. Tape recorder
D. All of these
Answer is = D
Major concern of curriculum is?
A. Personal satisfaction
B. Change in individuals behavior
C. Preparation for service
D. None
Answer is = B
The importance of curriculum in the system of education is just like a?
A. Constitution in a country
B. Provision of latest knowledge
C. Preparation of students for service
D. None
Answer is = A
Curriculum is supposed to?
A. Achieve the objectives
B. Be organized by the school
C. Both
D. None
Answer is = C
Curriculum reflects the culture of?
A. Society
B. Home
C. School
D. Area
Answer is = A
A. Learning means?
B. Change in behavior
C. Teaching process
D. Curriculum
E. None
Answer is = A
The outline of the contents is?
A. Course
B. Syllabus
C. Programe
D. All above
Answer is = B
Component of curriculum is?
A. Evaluation
B. Objectives
C. Teaching strategies
D. All
Answer is = D
Models of curriculum presently being used at any stage in Pakistan is?
A. Activity
B. Subject
C. Integrated
D. All of above
Answer is = D
The selection of the particular design is influenced by?
A. Types
B. Elements
C. Foundation
D. Principle
Answer is = C
Intelligence level of gifted student is?
A. 140 and above
B. 110
C. 90
D. None
Answer is = A
The scope of curriculum include
A. Programme of studies
B. Programme of Activites
C. Programme of Guidance
D. All
Answer is = D
The concise Oxford Dictionary defines curriculum as a?
A. Course of learning
B. Chariot race course
C. Course of study
D. None
Answer is = B
The model of curriculum could not move above elementary stage is?
A. Core curriculum
B. Activity curriculum
C. Subject curriculum
D. None
Answer is = B
Detailed contents of the subjects for a class are called?
A. Course
B. Behavior
C. Design
D. Logical sequence
Answer is =A
A curriculum is the sum total of a school efforts to influence a child?
A. Course
B. Behavior
C. Design
D. Logical sequence
Answer is = B
Percentage of knowledge gained through observation is?
A. 75 %
B. 50 %
C. 34%
D. None
Answer is = A
The base on which the subject activities and experience are planned is called?
A. Course
B. Behavior
C. Design
D. Logical sequence
Answer is = C
Keeping in view the types of students in a class are generally grouped as?
A. Average
B. Below average
C. Above average
D. All
Answer is = D
Logical order of content organization is to arrange the content according to?
A. Course
B. Behavior
C. Design
D. Logical sequence
Answer is = D
Summative evaluation takes place?
A. In the beginning
B. At the end
C. In the middle
D. None
Answer is = B
Without suitable curriculum, aims of education
A. Can be achieved
B. Cannot be achieved
C. Can be changed
D. None
Answer is = B
How many basic components of curriculum have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer is = B
Curriculum development refers to the total process of curriculum?
A. Designing
B. Implementing
C. Evaluating
D. All
Answer is = D
Which one is not the component of the curriculum?
A. Design
B. Evaluation
C. Curriculum design
D. Abilities
Answer is = A
Effectiveness of curriculum is determined by?
A. Design
B. Evaluation
C. Curriculum design
D. Abilities
Answer is = B
The arrangement of the elements of curriculum can be defined as?
A. Design
B. Evaluation
C. Curriculum design
D. Abilities
Answer is = C
The term “core curriculum” is sometimes simply called?
A. Core
B. Code
C. Cope
D. None
Answer is = A
The method used to evaluate the curriculum is?
A. Formative Evaluation
B. Summative Evaluation
C. Diagnostic Evaluation
D. A B C
Answer is = D
On way of finding out, what is going on in a class room is?
A. Observation
B. Education psychology
C. Foundation of curriculum
D. Is the purpose of life?
Answer is = A
When, what, why and How, to teach is the main task of?
A. Observation
B. Education psychology
C. Foundation of curriculum
D. Is the purpose of life?
Answer is = B
The forces that effect the development of curriculum are called?
A. Observation
B. Education psychology
C. Foundation of curriculum
D. Is the purpose of life?
Answer is = C
Philosophy and curriculum are concerned with the question of what?
A. Observation
B. Education psychology
C. Foundation of curriculum
D. Is the purpose of life?
Answer is = D
Philosophical foundation of curriculum is concerned with?
A. Ideas
B. Psychological foundation
C. Society
D. Content
Answer is = A
Student needs and interests are important in?
A. Ideas
B. Psychological foundation
C. Society
D. Content
Answer is =B
Sociological foundations are concerned with?
A. Ideas
B. Psychological foundation
C. Society
D. Content
Answer is = C
Subject centered designs revolve around?
A. Ideas
B. Psychological foundation
C. Society
D. Content
Answer is = D
Nature of elements of curriculum and pattern of their organization is?
A. Curriculum design
B. Foundation of curriculum
C. Curriculum evaluation
D. Elements of curriculum
Answer is = A
A frame work of action for preparing a curriculum is?
A. Curriculum design
B. Foundation of curriculum
C. Curriculum evaluation
D. Elements of curriculum
Answer is = A
Knowledge is compartmentalized in?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is = A
Prior planning is characteristic of?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is =A
Explanatory methods are used in?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is =A
Broad field curriculum is a modification of?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is =A
Rote learning is a demerit of?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is =A
Teacher training is less emphasized in?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is =A
Curriculum based on thinking of John Dewey is?
A. Subject centered curriculum
B. Learner centered curriculum
C. Activity centered curriculum
D. None
Answer is =C
Prior planning is not possible in?
A. Activity centered curriculum
B. Integrated curriculum
C. Decrease in number of books
D. Horizontal organization
Answer is = A
Curriculum emphasized for primary classes is?
A. Activity centered curriculum
B. Integrated curriculum
C. Decrease in number of books
D. Horizontal organization
Answer is = B
The purpose of integrated curriculum is?
A. Activity centered curriculum
B. Integrated curriculum
C. Decrease in number of books
D. Horizontal organization
Answer is = C
The relationship of different concepts at one level is?
A. Activity centered curriculum
B. Integrated curriculum
C. Decrease in number of books
D. Horizontal organization
Answer is = D
Which is not concerned with teacher training?
A. BISE
B. University of Education
C. IER
D. DSD
Answer is = A
Examinations are conducted by?
A. BISE
B. University of Education
C. IER
D. DSD
Answer is = A
University of Education was established in?
A. 2002
B. 2000
C. 1998
D. 1992
Answer is = A
Allama Iqbal Open University was established in?
A. 2002
B. 1974
C. 1998
D. 1992
Answer is = B
The system of distance education is observed in?
A. BISE
B. University of Education
C. Allama Iqbal Open University
D. None
Answer is = C
The major function of Punjab text Book Board
A. Printing books
B. Examination
C. Evaluation
D. None
Answer is = A
Making value judgment about curriculum is?
A. Curriculum evaluation
B. Objectives
C. I.Q
D. Educational institution
Answer is = A
The most important component of lesson plan is?
A. Curriculum evaluation
B. Objectives
C. I.Q
D. Educational institution
Answer is = B
To select subject matter, one should consider student?
A. Curriculum evaluation
B. Objectives
C. I.Q
D. Educational institution
Answer is = C
The implementer for curriculum is?
A. Curriculum evaluation
B. Objectives
C. I.Q
D. Educational institution
Answer is = D
The source of achieving on objectives is?
A. Curriculum evaluation
B. Objectives
C. I.Q
D. Action
Answer is = D

# School And Class Room Management MCQs For Headmaster Exam

The main purpose of the supervision of teaching should be the
A. Advacement of pupil welfare
B. Proper utilization of school facilities
C. Carrying out of the curriculum
D. Achievement of success in examination
Answer is = A
Supervision sould be primarily
A. Prevtive and critical
B. Preventive and corrective
C. Constructive and creative
D. Construction and critical
Answer is = C
The basic purpose of supervision is to help
A. Teachers in improving methods
B. Teachers in understanding pupil
C. Children learn more effectively
D. Teachers in dealing pupils
Answer is = C
The elementary school teachers are directly responsible to the
A. Headmaster
B. Deo
C. Parents
D. Students
Answer is = A
The criticism most frequently leveled at school administration is that:
A. They like praise
B. They are to lazy
C. They fail to provide leadership
D. They do not know teacher
Answer is = C
The school headmaster are expected to
A. Put into operation the course of study
B. Hold daily meetings
C. Prepare the budget
D. All of the above
Answer is = A
A supervisor is one who
A. Provides friendly help
B. Inspects classrooms
C. Gives directions
D. Criticizes the teaching method
Answer is = A
The effective supervision is indicated by
A. Good relations between teacher and supervisors
B. Helping teacher in their teaching
C. Helping teachers becoming more self sufficient
D. Criticizing teacher’s lessons
Answer is = C
The school policy should be determined by:
A. The professional educators
B. Headmasters
C. Citizens d
D. Citizens and educators
Answer is =D
The chief responsibility of the principal is
A. Organize and administer the guidance programmed
B. Provide leadership in instructional plan
C. Maintain school records
D. Handle discipline problems
Answer is =B
Indication of democratic attitude is
A. Equal rights
B. Participation
C. Cooperation
D. All of the above
Answer is =D
The history of administration goes back to
A. 5000 BC
B. 4000BC
C. 800BC
D. 1000BC
Answer is =A
Adminstration meams
A. To look after
B. To protect
C. To run
D. To establish
Answer is =A
The function of educational administration and management is
A. Instrucitonal tasks
B. Non instrucitonal tasks
C. Both a and b
D. None
Answer is =C
Provision of good educational environment is
A. Instrucional tasks
B. Non instrucitonal tasks
C. Both a and b
D. None
Answer is =A
Arrangement of physical resources is
A. Instrucitonal tasks
B. Non instructional tasks
C. Both
D. None
Answer is =B
The main types of adminstration are
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Answer is =B
Which is not the type of adminstration
A. Instructional administration
B. Authoritarian administration
C. Democratic administration
D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is = A
Which is not the characteristic of authoritative administration
A. Rudeness
B. Suppression the subordinates
C. Strict discipline
D. Sharing
Answer is = D
Authoritative administration is based on
A. Dictatorship
B. Mutual sharing
C. Non interference
D. None
Answer is =A
Democratic administration is based on
A. Dictatorship
B. Mutual sharing
C. Non interference
D. None
Answer is =B
Laissez Faire administration is based on
A. Dictatorship
B. Mutual sharing
C. Non interference
D. None
Answer is =C
Boss is right is the feature of
A. Instructional administration
B. Authoritarian administration
C. Democratic administration
D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is =B
Respect of opinion is the feature of
A. Instructional administration
B. Authoritarian administration
C. Democratic administration
D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is =C
Sense of responsibility is not cared in
A. Instructional administration
B. Authoritarian administration
C. Democratic administration
D. Laissez Faire administration
Answer is =D
Literal meaning of supervision is
A. Superior knowledge and power
B. Superior knowledge and service
C. Superior efforts and services
D. None of these
Answer is =A
“Supervision is not to control the teacher but to work cooperatively” is the saying of
A. Glatthorn
B. Hoy and Forsyth
C. Harris
D. Glickman
Answer is = B
In teaching learning process supervision is usually carried out by
A. Principal
B. Teacher
C. Parents
D. Society
Answer is = A
Assessment of how well a school is performing is
A. Administration
B. Supervision
C. Inspection
D. All of the above
Answer is =C
According to Fayol, elements of administration are
A. 4
B. 5
C. 5
D. 2
Answer is = B
According to Gulick and Urwick, elements of administration are
A. 7
B. 5
C. 8
D. 9
Answer is = A
In “POSDCORB” CO stands for
A. Cooperation
B. Collection
C. Coordinating
D. Correlation
Answer is =C
To make arrangements is the part of
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
Answer is = B
Execution of plans and decisions is the part of
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
Answer is =C
To bring harmony among all the elements of programmeis
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Commanding
D. Coordinating
Answer is =D
School Budgert includes
A. Development expendciture
B. Non development expenditure
C. Both an and b
D. None of a and b
Answer is =C
BM stands for
A. Budget Money
B. Budget Monitoring
C. Budget Materials
D. Budget Manual
Answer is = D
Non development budget includes
A. Salaries
B. Running ependitures
C. Maintenance of building
D. All of the above
Answer is = D
New Libraries laboratories etc are constructed undr
A. Development Budget
B. Non development budget
C. Both a and b
D. None
Answer is = A
Leadership is the ability
A. To influence
B. To motivate
C. To achieve organizational goals
D. All of the above
Answer is =
Staff development means
A. Recruiting staff
B. Training staff
C. Increasing staff
D. Decreasing staff
Answer is = B
Selecting one course of action among various alternatives is
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Decision making
D. Coordinating
Answer is = C
Who is called father of scientific management theory
A. Fredrick Tylor
B. Henry Fayol
C. Terry and Franklin
D. Elton Meo
Answer is = A
Who is the father of operational management theory
A. Fredrick Tylor
B. Henry Fayol
C. Terry and Franklin
D. Elton Meo
Answer is = B
All Govt. grants and expenditures are maintained in
A. Cash Register
B. Acquittance Roll
C. Stock Register
D. Contingent Register
Answer is = A
In case of GPF advance , the number of installments for refunding is
A. 24
B. 32
C. 65
D. 41
Answer is = A
Developing alternatives is a step of
A. Organization
B. Planning
C. Direction
D. Control
Answer is = B
How funds in a given period will be obtained and spent is
A. Allocation
B. Expenditure
C. Budget
D. Reciept
Answer is = C
Types of supervision encouraging variety , originality and indpendent experimentation is
A. Preventive
B. Corrective
C. Creative
D. Construction
Answer is = C
Who advocated bureaucratic theory
A. Campbell
B. Herzberg
C. Henry Fayol
D. Max Weber
Answer is = D
Directing must be consistent with
A. Organizational policies
B. Procedures
C. Job descriptions
D. All of the above
Answer is = D
In case of new recruitment the probation period is
A. 3 Years
B. 5 Years
C. 8 Years
D. 9 Years
Answer is = A
The power delegated throughtout an organization is
A. Control
B. Command
C. Decetralization
D. Centralization
Answer is =C
The father of modern theory of management is
A. Tyler
B. Hery Fayol
C. Max Weber
D. Gullick
Answer is = B
The smallest interacting parts of a systems are
A. Input
B. Component
C. Structure
D. Feed back
Answer is = B
Which pension is granted to civil servant who retires in the age of sixty
A. Superannuation
B. Invalid
C. Retiring
D. Compensation
Answer is =A
All financial transaction of the school occurring from day to day is entered in
A. Cash Book
B. Stock Register
C. Service Book
D. Log Book
Answer is = A
The process of directing others, towards the accomplishment of some objectives is
A. Communication
B. Managing
C. Leadership
D. None
Answer is = B
Micro planning is done in
A. Top Management
B. Middle Management
C. Lower Management
D. Middle and Lower Management
Answer is =D
The ACR cannot be initiated for the period of less than
A. Two months
B. Three months
C. Five months
D. Four months
Answer is = B
The individual in the group given the task of directing and coordinating is
A. Leader
B. Supervisor
C. Instructor
D. Guide
Answer is = B
A choice made between two or more alternative is called
A. Assumption
B. Decision
C. Reporting
D. None
Answer is = B
The cash book in maintained by
A. DDO
B. EDO
C. DEO
D. Dy.DEO
Answer is = A
Authoritarian model is more suitable for
A. Confidence
B. Improvement
C. Achievement
D. Discipline
Answer is = D
Teacher salaries and allowances collectively are written in
A. Cash Register
B. Acquaintance Roll
C. Contingent Register
Answer is = A
To motivate the other to achieve certain goals is
A. Planning
B. Leading
C. Controlling
D. Organizing
Answer is =B
A programme of activities which is designed to attain educational ends is
A. Learning
B. Curriculum
C. Instruction
D. Syllabi
Answer is = B
Superannuation retirement age in Pakistan is
A. 60 Years
B. 65 Years
C. 75 Years
D. 80 Years
Answer is = A
Pension is given if the retirement is after service of
A. 25 years
B. 30 years
C. 45 years
D. 50 years
Answer is = A
Person who possesses qualities of leadership is
A. Leader
B. Manager
C. Administrator
D. Officer
Answer is = A
The process of making judgment is called
A. Budgeting
B. Evaluation
C. Demonstration
D. Documentation
Answer is = B
The characteristics of good planner are
A. Optimistic
B. Motivator
C. Producer
D. All of them
Answer is = D
What does E and D Rules mean
A. Efficiency and duty rules
B. Efficiency and department rules
C. Efficiency and discipline rules
D. Efficiency and discipline rules
Answer is = C
A.D.P is an abbreviation of
A. Annual development programme
B. Annual duty programme
C. Annual division of performance
D. Annual debating programme
Answer is =A
The power is concentrated in the hands of one or few people in
A. Control
B. Command
C. Decentralization
D. Centralization
Answer is =D
Wht is central to administration
A. Organization
B. Communication
C. Decision making
D. Coordination
Answer is =C
In POSDIR, R stands for
A. Reporting
B. Response reply
C. Representing
D. Directing
Answer is =A
S.N.E is an abbreviation of
A. Schedule of new experience
B. Schedule of new entry
C. Schedule of new expenditure
D. System of new entry
Answer is =B
The level of school addminstration can best be judged through
A. Head teacher
B. Beautiful building
C. Learning out comes
D. Teachers students relations
Answer is = C
Acquittance roll is used for
A. Salary disbursement
B. Stock
C. Govt . grants
D. Expenditures
Answer is =A
The degree to which organizational resources contribute to productivity is
A. Effectiveness
B. Efficiency
C. Out put
D. Production
Answer is = B
All transaction should be enterd in which register
A. Fee
B. Cash
C. Funds
D. With drawl
Answer is = B
Coordinating , stimulating and directing the growth of teacher is the purpose of
A. Administration
B. Inspection
C. Supervision
D. Management
Answer is =B
The concept of inspection was first introduced in
A. Pakistan
B. India
C. England
D. China
Answer is = C
Budgeting is an estimation of
A. Income and investment
B. Investment
C. Income and expenditure
D. All of the above
Answer is = C
The authorized person of staff performance is
A. Teacher
B. Head teacher
C. Student
D. Clerk
Answer is =B