A Written examination (Subjective + Objective) of 100 marks each comprising of the following subject will be conducted:


PAPER LAW-I    (100 MARKS) Subjective


Pakistan Penal Code 1860


Code of Criminal Procedure 1898


Qanun-e-Shahadat Order, 1984 alongwith precedent Law.
 PAPER LAW-II  (100 MARKS) Objective


Control of Narcotic Substances Act, 1997.


Juvenile Justice System Ordinance, 2000.


Probation and parole Laws.


The Jail Manual.


Medical jurisprudence and Application of Forensic Science to Criminal cases 


Pakistan Studies Mcqs for PPSC Upcoming Lecturer Test Preparation

Pakistan Studies Mcqs For PPSC Upcoming Lecturer Test Preparation

Pakistan  Studies Mcqs for PPSC Upcoming Lecturer Test Preparation

  • 1 . At present Pakistan has vast natural resources and items of mineral as many as: A. 14 items B. 15 items C. 16 items D. None of these.
  • 2 .
    The height of Pakistan’s highest mountain Pak-Godwin Austin is as high as:
    A. 26, 250 ft B. 27, 250 ft
    C. 28, 250 ft D. None of these
  • 3 .
    The Government of Pakistan established the Indus River System Authority in the year:
    A. 1960 B. 1970
    C. 1980 D. None of these
  • 4 .
    With regard the division of power between Federation and Provinces the Constitution of Pakistan (1962) was provided with:
    A. Single list of subjects B. Two lists of subjects
    C. Three lists of subjects D. None of these
  • 5 .
    Objective Resolution was passed by the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan on:
    A. March 12, 1947 B. March 12, 1948
    C. March 12, 1949 D. None of these
  • 6 .
    All India Muslim League observed the “Direct Action Day” on:
    A. August 6, 1944 B. August 6, 1945
    C. August 6, 1946 D. None of these (16 August, 1946)
  • 7 .
    The British Prime Minister Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award in 1932 at the end of:
    A. First Round Table Conference B. Second Round Table Conference
    C. Third Round Table Conference D. None of these
  • 8 .
    The Simon Commission arrived in India on:
    A. 3rd February, 1927 B. 3rd February, 1928
    C. 3rd February, 1929 D. None of these
  • 9 .
    Dyarchy was first introduced in the Act of:
    A. 1909 B. 1919
    C. 1935 D. None of these.
  • 10 .
    The resolution of non-cooperation with British Government was passed in the meeting of All India National Congress in 1920, which was held at:
    A. Madras B. Bomby
    C. Nagpur D. None of these (Calcutta)
  • 11 .
    Who divided Bengal into East and West Bengal in July 1905?
    A. Lord Curzon B. Lord Minto
    C. Lord Morely D. None of these
  • 12 .
    Who was appointed first President of Muslim league?
    A. Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk B. Nawab Viqar-ul-Mulk
    C. Nawab Saleem Ullah D. None of these
  • 13 .
    “Pakistan’s Constitution should incorporate the essential principles of Islam, which are as good and relevant in our day, as were 1300 years ago. But Pakistan should not be a theocratic state ruled by priests.” This statement was given by:
    A. Sir Syed Ahmad Khan B. Allama Iqbal
    C. Quaid-e-Azam D. None of these
  • 14 .
    Anjuman-e-Islamia Punjab was founded for the renaissance of Islam in the year:
    A. 1849 B. 1859
    C. 1869 D. None of these
  • 15 .
    The downfall of Muslim rule in India started with the demise of
    A. Akbar B. Aurangzeb
    C. Bahadur Shah Zafar D. None of these
  • 16 .
    The Holy Quran was first translated into Persian by:
    A. Shah Ismail Shaheed B. Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi
    C. Shah Waliullah D. None of these
  • 17 .
    Qutb-ud-Din Aibak was succeeded on Delhi throne by:
    A. Aram Shah B. Iltumish
    C. Razia Sultana D. None of these
  • 18 .
    Shahab-ud-Din Muhammad Ghuri defeated Pirthviraj in the year 1192 in the field of:
    A. Panipat B. Nagpur
    C. Tarori or Tarain D. None of these
  • 19 .
    Mahmud of Ghazni waged war against rebellious India in the year of:
    A. 900 B. 1000
    C. 1100 D. None of these
  • 1 .
    Who rejected the theory of composite nationalism advanced by the Indian National congress?
    A. Mualana Maudoodi B. Allam Mashriqi
    C. Hussain Ahmed Madni D. None of these
  • 2 .
    Who presided over the session of Constituent Assmbly of Pakistan 10 August 1947?
    A. Quaid-e-Azam B. Liaqat ali khan
    C. Ch. Khaliq-uz-Zaman D. Sir Agha Khan
  • 3 .
    How many moslim seats were secured by All India Moslim League in 1945-46 Election of Provincial assemblies?
    A. 396 B. 425
    C. 441 D. None of these
  • 4 .
    Who drafted “Wardha Scheme” under the guidance of Ghandi?
    A. Abul Kalam Azad B. Nahru
    C. Dr. Zakir hussain D. None of these
  • 5 .
    Who is the author of “Hunter par Hunter”?
    A. Depuy Nazir Ahmed B. Sir syed Ahmed Khan
    C. Maulana Zafar Ali khan D. None of these
  • 6 .
    Who supported Muslim participation in politics?
    A. Wiqar-ul-Mulk B. Mohsin-ul-Mulk
    C. Maulana Zafar Ali khan D. Allama Iqbal
  • 7 .
    Which office held supreme judicial authority during Mughal rule?
    A. King B. Qazi-ul-Qazat
    C. Saddar-us-Sadur D. None of these
  • 8 .
    Who accepted Akbar’s “Din-e-Illahi”?
    A. Todar Mal B. Ma’an Singh
    C. Birbal D. None of these
  • 9 .
    Who wrote “Humanyun Nama”?
    A. Shahabuddin B. Gulbadan Begum
    C. Humayun D. Qudrat Ullah Shahab
  • 0 .
    Who laid foundation of Agra city?
    A. Sikandar Lodhi B. Babur
    C. Shah Jahan D. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
  • 11 .
    Who constructed five canals to remove scarcity of water?
    A. Alauddin Khaliji B. Ghyas-ud-Din Tughlaq
    C. Feroz Shah Tughlaq D. Akbar
  • 12 .
    Who rejected the verdicts of jurists that idol worshippers are liable to be murdered?
    A. Mahmood Ghaznawi B. Shamd-ud-Din Iltumish
    C. Jalal-ud-Din Deroz D. None of these
  • 1 .
    The 1 st Battle of Panipat was fought in:
    A. 1521 AD B. 1526 AD
    C. 1531 AD D. None of these
  • itab-ul-Hind was written by:
    A. Zia uddin Burni B. Minhaj Siraj
    C. Al-Beruni D. None of these
  • 3 .
    Durand Line, which divides the borders of India and Afghanistan was finalized in the year:
    A. 1686 B. 1886
    C. 1786 D. None of these
  • 4 .
    The war of Independence of 1857 started from
    A. Delhi B. Meerath
    C. Cawnpore D. None of these
  • 5 .
    Tipu Sultan is buried at
    A. Delhi B. Agra
    C. Saringapatam D. None of these
  • 6 .
    Second battle of Tarain was fought in
    A. 1092 B. 1292
    C. 1192 D. None of these
  • 7 .
    Qutb ud din Aibak died during the game of
    A. wrestling B. polo
    C. football D. None of these
  • 8 .
    Hazrat Data Gunj Bakhsh Ali Hajvery came to India with
    A. M.B.Qasim B. mahmud ghaznavi
    C. sultan masud of ghazna D. None of these
  • 9 .
    From 1858 till 1870 nearly all British Politicians, authors blamed the Muslims for:
    A. Disloyalty B. Independence
    C. Leadership D. None of these
  • 10 .
    Aligarh College was upgraded to the status of university in
    A. 1898 B. 1910
    C. 1920 D. None of these
  • 11 .
    Who was A.O Hume
    A. British foreign minister B. a retired civil officer
    C. governor general D. None of these
  • 12 .
    Sir Syed foudned MAO College in
    A. 1868 B. 1877
    C. 1885 D. None of these
  • 3 .
    ON which aspect of Islam did the great poest philospher Allama Iqbal emphasize in his famous book Reconstruction of Religous Thought in Islam
  • 14 .
    -Guru Nanak lived during the reign of:
    A. Babur B. Jehangir
    C. orangzaib D. None of these
  • 5 .
    Nizamuddin Auliya flourished during the reign of:
    A. Alauddin Khilji B. Humayun
    C. Akbar D. None of these
  • 16 .
    -Ibn-e-Batutah by birth was a:
    A. Turk B. Afghan
    C. pakistani D. None of these
  • 17 .
    -Abu Rehan Alberuni was:
    A. painter B. poet
    C. teacher D. none of these
  • 18 .
    Sultan Aram Shah belonged to:
    A. Khilji dynasty B. Tughluq Dynasty
    C. Tughluq Khan D. None of these

Pakistan Studies Mcqs For PPSC Upcoming Lecturer Test Preparation

LAW Mcqs For PCS & CSS Exams

LAW Mcqs For PCS & CSS Exams

LAW Mcqs For PCS & CSS Exams

Q.1. Select the best option/answer and fill in the appropriate box on the Answer Sheet. (20)
i. The concept of Res-judicata is available in:
(a) section 9
(b) section 11
(c) section12
(d) none of these
ii. In cases wherein the subject-matter is more than 30 lacs appeal against appellate decree lies before:
(a) District court
(b) High court
(c) Supreme court
(d) Any of these
iii- review can be filed before:
(a)same court of original jurisdiction
(b) district court
(c) High court
(d) Supreme court
iv- defendant is the person who:
(a) files a suit
(b) delays a suit
(c) defends a suit
(d) none of these
v- Appeal against decree is available on the ground of:
(a) Questions of fact
(b) Questions of law
(c) Mixed questions of law and fact
(d) All of these
vi- A suit means:
(a) Any criminal proceeding in a court of law
(b) A cause of action
(c) Any civil proceeding, being part of a plaint
(d) None of these
vii- Revisional jurisdiction is available to:
(a) District court
(b) High court in its original jurisdiction
(c) Supreme court
(d) None of these
viii- Agency contract is created by:
(a) express agreement
(b) implied agreement
(c) ratification
(d) all of these
ix- Pledge is a:
(a) contract of bailment
(b) contract of indemnity
(c) contract of agency
(d) none of these
x- these are the contracts wherein there is ni need of consideration :
(a) agreement to compensate past voluntary services
(b) agreement to time barred debt
(c) none of these
(d) in both (a) & (b)
xi- all the agreements are contracts:
(a) if they are on stamp paper
(b) if they are made by the free consent of the parties
(c) if they are registered
(d) none of these
xii- under the effect of fraud the contract would be:
(a) voidable
(b) void
(c) unenforceable
(d) none of these
xiii- Tort(word) is derived from the:
(a) latin language
(b) greek language
(c) French language
(d) English language
xiv- how many constitutes of torts are stated by legal thinkers:
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) None of these
xv- Rylands vs. Fletcher case was about:
(a) negligence
(b) nuisance
(c) strict liability
(d) none of these
xvi- libel and slander are kinds of:
(a) damnum sine injuria
(b) defamation
(c) discharge of torts
(d) none of these
xvii- assault and battery are kinds of :
(a) trespass to person
(b) malicious prosecution
(c) force majeure
(d) none of these
xviii- any thing done to hurt or annoyance of the lands and not amounting to trespass is termed as:
(a) negligence
(b) Nuisance
(c) Malicious prosecution
(d) All of these
xix- incorporeal rights include:
(a) easements
(b) trade marks
(c) patent and copy right
(d) all of these
xx- when license and authority is given to hurt , doing the same it becomes:
(a) trespass ab intio
(b) injuria sine damnum
(c) Volenti non fit injuria
(d) None of these
(i) judicial confession can be recorded by the following procedure available in:
(a)section 164 cr.pc
(b)section 364 cr.pc
(c ) both sections
(d) none of these
(ii) the procedure of identification parade is available in:
(a)Art. 22 of Q.S.O.
(b)Art. 24 of Q.S.O.
(c) Art. 27 of Q.S.O.
(d) Any of these
(iii) fact of judicial notice requires its proof by:
(a) oral evidence
(b) documentary evidence
(c) by both (a) & (b)
(d) Need not to prove
(iv) expert is a person who is specially skilled in the subject of:
(a) foreign law
(b) Art
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of these
(v) hearsay evidence is generally:
(a) admissible evidence
(b) inadmissible evidence
(c) oral evidence
(d) none of these
(vi) Accomplice is a type of witness:
(a) who is partner in crime
(b) who don’t associate in crime
(c) who may be a planted person in a criminal gang
(d) none of these
(vii) section __________ deals with arrest without warrant:
(a) 46
(b) 48
(c) 54
(d) 59
(viii) Arrest without warrant can be made by a Police officer:
(a) of any rank
(b) officer in charge of a police station
(c) not below the rank of officer
(d) any of these
(ix) unlawful assembly is an assembly consisting at least _________ persons:
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) None of these
(x) after recording confession, the accused is:
(a) sent back to the police custody
(b) kept in judicial lock up
(c) set free
(d) none of these
(xi) confirmation of death sentence by the High court must be signed by:
(a) one judge
(b) two judge
(c) three judges
(d) any of these
(xii) bailable offences are offences punishable with:
(a) imprisonment for life
(b) imprisonment less than 10 years
(c) Death
(d) All of these
(xiii) FIR of a cognizable offences can be lodged by :
(a) the aggrieved person
(b) the relative of the aggrieved
(c) Any person having knowledge of the offence
(d) All of these
(xiv) statement recorded under section 342 shall be administered on Oath :
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Discretion of court to ask for Oath or not
(xv) The form of FIR contains:
(a) 4 columns
(b) 5 columns
(c) 6 columns
(d) 7 columns
(xvi) Pakistan Penal Code was passed in:
(a) 7th April 1860
(b) 6th October 1860
(c) 7th October 1860
(d) None of these
(xvii) right of private defence of body includes the defence of:
(a) his own body
(b) Any other person
(c) His own body and of his close relative
(d) His body and the body of any other person
(xviii) kidnapping includes:
(a) kidnapping from Pakistan
(b) kidnapping from lawful guardianship
(c) kidnapping from Pakistan and from lawful guardianship
(d) None of these
(xix) the word “injury” includes or denotes any harm whether illegally caused to person:
(a) in body
(b) reputation or property
(c) mind
(d) All of these
(xx) whoever commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment of the description for a term which may extend to:
(a) 3 years
(b) 19 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 17 years

LAW Mcqs For PCS & CSS Exams

Important Books On Islamic History

Important Books On Islamic History

Important Books On Islamic History
1. Pick out the name of the author of the book entitled “Tarikh-ul-Khulafa”?
1. Al-Masoodi
2. Suyuti
3. Imam Ghazli (R.A)
4. Kindi
Answer: Suyuti
2. Which book was written by Tabari?
1. Tabqat-ul-Khubara
2. Kitab-ul-Wulat
3. Tarikh-ul-Khulafa
4. Tarikh-ul-Umara Wal Muluk
Answer: Tarikh-ul-Umara Wal Muluk
3. Give the name of of the author of the renowned book entitled “Futuh-ul-Baldan”?
1. Ibn-al-Abbar
2. Al-Baladhuri
3. Yaqoobi
4. Ibn-al-Athir
Answer: Al-Baladhuri
4. Which work has been the main cause of the fame of Ibn Khaldun?
1. Muqaddama
2. Kitab-ul-Futuh
3. Mujam-al-Baldan
4. Non of these
Answer: Muqaddama
5. Which book was written by T.Arnold?
1. Medieval Islam
2. S.F.Mahmood
3. Syed Ameer Ali
4. Bernard Lewis
Answer: Syed Ameer Ali
6. Pick out the name of the author of the book entitled “The Majesty that was Islam”?
1. Cantwell Smith
2. B.Spuler
3. W.M.Watt
4. Montgomery Watt

Important Books On Islamic History

Chemistry Mcqs For Public Service Exams

Chemistry Mcqs For Public Service Exams

Chemistry Mcqs For Public Service Exams

Q.1. (a) What is hydrogen spectrum? How does it help in understanding the structure ofatom? (10)
(b) Write comprehensive notes on hydrogen and metallic bonding. (10)
Q.2. (a) What do you understand by Ionic Equilibria? (7)
(b) Discuss buffer solutions and their mechanism. (7)
(c) Discuss the principle and working of Glass Electrode. (6)
Q.3. (a) Classify Silicates into different types. Give the composition and structure of atleast two types of silicates. (6)
(b) Give the preparation, properties and structure of Phosphorus Penta oxide. (5)
(c) Describe the preparation and properties of Nitrogen Dioxide (NO2). (5)
(d) Write a note on Interhalogen Compounds. (4)
Q.4. (a) What are the principal ores of Silver? How Silver is extracted from its ores?(8)
(b) Discuss the metallurgy of copper. (6)
(c) Give the names of Iron Ores. (6)
Q.5. (a) Describe the contact process for the manufacture of sulphuric acid. (8)
(b) What are the different types of Fertilizers? Give their chemical formula. (5)
(c) Discuss the measures for the control of CO (Carbon mono-oxide) pollutionin air. (7)
Q.6. (a) Discuss the general characteristics of transition elements based on theirelectronic configuration. (10)
(b) How free energy and chemical equilibrium are related to each other? (10)
Q.7. Write notes on any FOUR of the following: (5 each)
(a) Fixation of Nitrogen
(b) Semiconductivity Devices
(c) Metallurgy of Aluminium
(d) Crystal field theory
(e) Entropy and second law of thermodynamics
(f) Water Pollution
(3) Which type of reaction is occurring when a metal undergoes corrosion:
(a) Oxidation-reduction (b) Neutralization
(c) Polymerization (d) Saponification
(e) None of these
(4) What is the pH of 0.00001 Molar HCl solution:
(a) 1 (b)9 (c)5
(d) 4 (e) None of these
(5) What is the total number of atoms contained in 2 moles of nickel?
(a) 58.9 (b) 118 (c) 6.02 ´1023
(d) 1.2 ´1024 (e) None of these
(6) What is the percent by mass of oxygen in magnesium oxide (MgO):
(a) 20 % (b) 40 % (c) 50 %
(d) 60 % (e) None of these
(7) Which halogens are gases at STP?
(a) Chlorine and Bromine (b) Chlorine and Fluorine
(c) Iodine and Fluorine (d) Iodine and Bromine
(8) The internal resistance of a liquid to flow is called:
(a) Surface tension (b) Capillary action
(c) Viscosity (d) Van der waals alteraction
(e) None of these
(9) Two Cu Cu2+ couples, A and B are prepared with Cu2+ concentration of exactly
twice that of B. If these two couples are joined to make a cell:
(a) No current will flow (b) Current will flow from A to B
(c) Current will flow from B to A (d) The system will be in equilibrium
(10) The valence of an element:
(a) Always equals the oxidation number
(b) Never equals the oxidation number
(c) Is unrelated to the oxidation number
(d) May be numerically equal to the oxidation number
(11) The basic raw materials used in a Blast furnace to produce Iron are Iron ore, Coke,
Air and:
(a) Scrap Iron (b) Sulphur (c) Sand
(d) Limestone (e) None of these
(12) In contrast to the carbonates of the alkali metals, the alkaline earth carbonates:
(a) Are more soluble
(b) Cannot be isolated
(c) Decompose on heating metal and CO2
(d) Decompose on heating forming oxide and CO2
(e) None of these
(13) Coustic Soda is the common name for:
(a) KOH (b) Na2CO3 (c) K2CO3
(d) NaOH (e) None of these
(14) When 2 g of Copper was heated with Sulphur 2.51 g of sulphide was produced.
The empirical formula of the sulphide is:
(a) Cu S2 (b) Cu2 S
(c) Cu2 S3 (d) None of these
(15) The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of:
(a) Protons in the nucleus (b) Protons and neutrons in the nucleus
(c) Neutrons in the nucleus (d) None of these
(16) A liquid will boil at a given temperature provided the atmospheric pressure is equal
(a) The vapour pressure of the liquid (b) Zero
(c) One atmosphere (d) The critical pressure
(e) None of these
(17) When 12 g of magnesium are dissolved in acid, 1g of hydrogen is produced. What
conclusion may correctly be drawn from this information:
(a) The atomic weight of magnesium is 12
(b) The atomic weight of magnesium is 24
(c) The equivale nt weight of magnesium is 24
(d) Not possible to obtain atomic weight from this information
(18) The more reactive a metal:
(a) The less easily it is oxidized
(b) The more easily it gains electrons
(c) The greater is its tendency to form positive ions
(d) The small is its ionization potential
(e) None of these
(19) Sulphure crystallizes in both monoclinic and rhombic forms. This is an exampleof:
(a) A morphism (b) Isomorphism (c) Allotropy
(d) Supercooling (e) None of these
(20) The oxidation number of sulphur in H2SO4 is:
(a) – 2 (b) +2 (c) + 5
(d) + 4 (e) None of these

Chemistry Mcqs For Public Service Exams

General Knowledge MCQs For PSC & CSS Exams

General Knowledge MCQs For PSC & CSS Exams

General Knowledge MCQs For PSC & CSS Exams

1. The speed of rotation of the earth is the highest___?
(a) Along the equator (b)along the topic of cancer(c)along the arctic circle(d)at the north pole.
Answer is = D
2. Flash Point term is related with the
(a) study of water(b) Study of Rocks (c) Study of Climate (d) study of Dew drops
Answer is = C
3. About 50%of the world population is concentrated between the latitudes of____?
(a)5 N and 20 N (b)20 N and 40 N (c)40 N and 60 N (d)20 S and 40 S.
Answer is = D
4. The time at any point on the earth’s surface calculated when the sun reaches its highest position in the Sky is known as___?
(a)local time (b)sidereal time (c)solar time (d)standard time.
Answer is = A
5. what will be the time at a place situated at 70 W when it is 4 p.m. at a place situated at 35 E__?
(a)5 p. m (b)8 p.m. (c)11 a.m.(d)9 a.m.
Answer is = D
6. When the local time is 12.00 noon and the time at Greenland Meridian is 8.00 a.m. The local longitude is _____?
(a)60 east (b)60 west (c)45 west (d)45 east.
Answer is = A
7. How many countries are land locked countries in the world ____?
(a) 34 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 44.
Answer is = D
8. In the troposphere the normal lapse rate i.e., the decrease in temperature with height is of the order of ______?
(a)1 C for 155 meters (b)1 C for 160 meters (c)1 C for 165 meters (d)1 C for 170 meters.
Answer is = C
9. A land locked country in Africa is___________?
(a)Zambia (b)Tanzania (c)Nigeria (d)Somalia.
Answer is = A
10. In which one of the following positions does the earth revolve at a faster rate around the sun_________?
(a) Summer solstice (b) winter solicits (c) autumnal equinox (d) vernal equinox.
Answer is = D
11. If a magnetic needle is freely suspended at the geographic north pole_________________?
(A)the needle will remain vertical with its N-pole downward(B)the needle will remain almost vertical with its N-pole downward(C)the needle will remain vertical with its S-pole downward(d)the needle will remain almost vertical with its S –pole downward.
Answer is = D
12.South pole is located in the continent of ____?
(a)Africa (b)Australia (c)Asia (d)Antarctica
Answer is = D
13. Which mountain system lies between the black sea and Caspian sea____?
(A)Appalachians (B) Caucasus (C) Pyrenees (d) atlas.
Answer is = B
14. The atmosphere pressure at any place is measured by___?
(a) Altimeter (b) pressure meter (C) Pyrenees (D) thermometer.
Answer is = C
15.Which of these cities once served as the capital of Japan____?
(A) Kobe (B) Kyoto (C) Okinawa (D) sendia.
Answer is = B
16. Which peninsula lies between the black sea and sea of Azov ____?
(A)Crimean (B) Iberian (C) Kamchatka (D) Yucatan
Answer is = A
17. On the bank of which river is the city of London located_____?
(a)Seven (B) Thames (c) Avon (D) number.
Answer is =B
18. Which among the following trees is considered the tallest in the word?
(A) Cedar (B) redwood (C) eucalyptus (D)date palm.
Answer is = B
19. Which country was earlier known as siam______?
(A) Indonesia (B) Somalia (C)Thailand (D)Myanmar
Answer is = C
20. which is the largest country in the Arabian peninsula ____?
(A)Oman (B)Yemen (c) Saudi Arabia (D) Kuwait.
Answer is = C
21. which river forms the grand canyon in the united states____?
(A)Mississippi (B)Hudson (C)Colorado Columbia .
Answer is =
22. which of these cloud forms in found at the highest altitudes____?
(A)Billow (B) Nacreous (C) Noctilucent (D) Pile us.
Answer is = C
23. Thickness of atmosphere around the earth is _____?
(A) 100 km (B) 130 km (C) 145 km (D) 195 km.
Answer is = C
24. Atmosphere around the earth maintains its _____?
(A) Temperature (B) pressure (C) density (D) shape
Answer is =A
25. The layers of atmosphere are divided in to____?
(A) Two parts (B) 3 parts (C) 4 parts (D) 5 parts.
Answer is = C
26. Above the earth’s surface troposphere extends to a height of_____?
(A) 08 km (B) 12 km (C) 15 km (D) 20 km .
Answer is =C
27. Which next layer is above the troposphere ___?
(A) Mesosphere (B) stratosphere (C) thermosphere (D) space
Answer is = B
28. The mesosphere extended above the earth’s surface is up to ____?
(A) 60 km (B) 65 km (C) 80 km (D) 85 km .
Answer is = D
29. Which one of the following phenomena occurs when water vapor condenses around a particle of smoke____?
(A) Fog (B) hail (C) mist (D) smog
Answer is = D
30. Canola refers to special type of oil seed mustard bred for human consumption. The main characteristic of these varieties is that the ____?
(A) Seeds have very high oil content (B) oil is rich in unsaturated fatty acids
(C) Oil has long shelf-life (D) oil has very low Erucic acid content.
Answer is = B
31. Lines joining places of the same earthquake intensity are known as __?
(A) Isohyets (B) isohels (C) Isoseismal lines (D) isohalines
Answer is = C
32. Which one of the following lakes forms an international boundary between Tanzania and Uganda _____?
(A) Chad (B) Malawi (C) Victoria (D) Zambezi
Answer is = C
33.Which of the following countries has highest percentage of land under cultivation__?
(A) U.S.A. (B) India (C) China (D) Canada
Answer is = B
34. Which form of iron has got the highest carbon content ___?
(A) Mild steel (B) stainless steel (C) wrought iron (D) cast iron
Answer is =
35. Rows of trees grown along the coastal areas to reduce the impact of cyclones are known as_____?
(A) Wind breaks (B) protection (C) mangroves (D) shelter belts
Answer is = C
36. What kind of soil is treated with gypsum to make it suitable for cropping ___?
(A)Alkaline(B)acidic(C)waterlogged(D)soil with excessive clay content
Answer is = A
37.Which one of the following is a metamorphic rock ______?
(A) Granite (B) basalt (C) marble (C) sandstone
Answer is = C
38. According to Simon Winchester’s book, tectonic are there in the earth _____?
(A) 15 (B) 29 (C) 36 (D) 32
Answer is = C
39.All the following are planetary winds except ______?
Trade winds(B)the westerly’s(C) polar winds (d) the monsoon winds
Answer is = D
40. Which one of the following parts of clod deserts and continents is correctly matched ___?
(A) Atacama …..South America (B)Gobi……Asia (C)Kalahari….. Africa (D)great sandy …. Australia
Answer is = B
41.The production of rubber tree is better adopted to areas where the climate is ?
(A)Warm and humid (B)warm and dry (C)cool and moist (D)cool and dry
Answer is = A
42.Gulf streams are caused by _______?
(A)Cyclone(B)temperature(C)ocean pressure(D)difference in water level
Answer is = C
43. All vital atmospheric process leading to various climatic and weather conditions take place in the ___?
(A) troposphere (B) ionosphere (C) exosphere (D) stratosphere
Answer is = A
44. The minimum land area recommended for forest cover to maintain proper ecological balance is ______?
(A) 25% (B) 33% (C) 43 % (D) 53%
Answer is = A
45. Which one of the following scholars suggested the earth’s origin from gases and just particles __________?
(A) James jeans (B) H.Alfven (C) f. Hoyle (D) O.Schmidt.
Answer is = D
46. The theory that refers to an explosion about 10 to 15 billion years ago which most astronomers believe to be the origin of the universe is called ______?
(A)The red shift theory (B)Relativity theory (C)Big bang theory (D)Titanic theory
Answer is = C
47. Black holes are stellar object which___________?
(A) Emit black body radiation (B) have weak gravitational field (C) have intense gravitational field (D) have intense magnetic field
Answer is = C
48. Select the stranger in the group_______________?
(A) Cartograms (B) multiple bars (C) weather maps (D) pie diagrams
Answer is = C
49. The soil which cracks and shrinks most as it dries is____________________?
(A) Clayey soil (B) porous soil (C) sandy soil (C) loamy soil
Answer is = A
50. East Timor is now independent country, before independence it was part of _?
(A) Taiwan (B) Malaysia (C) Thailand (D) Indonesia
Answer is = D
51. Kosovo is now independent country, before its independence it was part of ______?
(A) Yugoslavia (B) Albania (C) Romania (D) Bulgaria
Answer is = A
52. On the day of the summer solstice in the northern hemisphere the length of day time on the Antarctic Circle is ________?
(A) 12 hours (B) 24 hours (C) Zero hours (D) 6 hours
Answer is = C
53. which of the following sequence represents correctly the different atmospheric layers from the earth’s surface __________?
(A) Stratosphere ‘troposphere,
ionosphere, tropopause
(B) Ionosphere tropopause
Troposphere stratosphere
(C) Troposphere tropopause
stratosphere ionosphere
(D) Stratosphere Troposphere
ionosphere tropopause.
Answer is = C
54. Days and nights are of equal duration on March 21 at ________?
(A) The tropic of cancer alone (B) the tropic of equator alone (C) the tropic of Capricorn alone (D) All parallel of latitude
Answer is =D
55. Which of the following in the most porous rock ________?
(A) Basalt (B) granite (C) sandstone (D) slate
Answer is = C
56. Weathering is ________?
(A) Breakdown or disintegration of rocks (B) Formation of soil by fine sand particles (C) breaking of the surface of land by flowing water (D) wearing down of rock surface.
Answer is = A
57. Which type of plants are adapted to grow under drought conditions _____________?
(A) Pteridophytes (B) xerophytes (C) tropophytes (D) hygrophytes
Answer is = B
58. Which of the following is the oldest rock __________?
(A) Quartzite (B) Ordovician (C) Carbonatities (D) Cambrian.
Answer is = B
59. Which of the following pairs is correct _________?
(A) Baghdad ——– Tigris
(B) Bonn ———- Danube
(C) Rome ——– Seine
(D) Paris ——– Tiber
Answer is = A
60. The leading producer of silver is _____________?
(A) U.S.A (B) Russia (C) Mexico (D) South Africa.
Answer is = C
61. The highest glade of coal whose surface is shining and has the highest calorific value is____?
(A) lignite (B) peat (C) bituminous (D) anthracite.
Answer is =D
62. If a place is located at 20 N , 80 E in which of the following continents does it lie _____?
(A) Africa (B) Asia (C) Europe (D) North America
Answer is = B
63. Which of the following is the region of winter rainfall _____________?
(A) Mediterranean (B) Tropical (C) Arctic (D) Monsoon
Answer is = A
64. Which of the following is a great circle_________?
(A) The arctic circle (B) the tropic of cancer (C) the equator (D) the tropic of Capricorn
Answer is = C
65. Availability of ample water is one of the important considerations in the location of ____?
(A) Cotton textile industry (B) paper industry (C) electronic industry (D) automobile industry
Answer is = B
66. Soil formed by deposition of silt brought by rivers is ______________?
(A) Alluvial soil (B) red soil (C) black soil (D) pod sols
Answer is = A
67. Which of the following statements about ozone layer is correct __________?
(A) it converts UV radiations in to electrical energy (B) it protects the earth’s life forms by preventing the damaging UV (C) it is of uniform thickness (D) none of the above
Answer is = B
68. High tides at antipodes are caused due to _________?
(A) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun (B) Gravitational pull of the sun (C) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun (D) Centrifugal, centripetal and gravitational pull of the sun and the moon.
Answer is = A
69. Which of the following types of rainfall is typical of equatorial regions _____________?
(A) Convectional (B) Orographic (C) Cyclonic (D) None of these.
Answer is = A
70. Change in season is caused due to ____________?
(A) Revolution of earth (B) rotation of earth (C) inclination of earth (D) none of these
Answer is = A
71. Winds generally blow from areas of ___________?
(A) Low pressure to that of high pressure (B) high pressure to that of low pressure (C) high pressure to that of moderate pressure (D) low pressure to that of moderate pressure .
Answer is = B
72. Which of the following soils is best suited for deep rooted crops___________?
(A) Red soil (B) Black soil (C) Laterite soil (D) alluvial soil
Answer is = B
73 .The imaginary line on the earth’s surface which closely follow the 180 meridian is called_________?
(A) International date line (B) tropic of cancer (C) equator (D) prime meridian
Answer is = A
74. Which of the following countries has largest area in the world ___________?
(A) Canada (B) China (C) U.S.A (D) Russia
Answer is = D
75. Which of the following climate types is said to be characterized by three Eighties: 80 F of temperature, 80 per cent of humidity and 80 inches of rainfall____________?
(A) Monsoon climate (B) Equatorial climate (C) Mediterranean climate (D) temperate climate
Answer is = B
76 .When it is 8 p. m. in Tokyo what is the time at Panama canal which is located at 180 W of it _________?
(A) 4.00 p.m. (B) 8.00 a.m. (C) 12.00 a.m. (D) 12.00 noon
Answer is = B
77. Evergreen forests are found ______________?
(A) In the estuaries of great rivers (B) in the Himalayas above 3,000 ft. elevation (C) where the rainfall is between 30 and 40 (D) where the rain fall is between 80 and 120
Answer is =D
78. Which of the following is a kharif crop ______________?
(A) Wheat (B) Rice (C) Gram (D) mustard
Answer is = B
79. Hail storm occurs in summer season due to the formation of clouds called ________?
(A) Cirrus (B) cumulus (C) cumulonimbus (D) cirrocumulus
Answer is = C
80. The seasonal reversal of winds is a phenomenon noticed in ______________?
(A) Monsoon climate (B) equatorial climate (C) Mediterranean climate (D) high lands
Answer is = A
81. Roaring forties are ___________?
(A) cyclonic westerly winds is northern hemisphere (B) spring tides(C) ocean current in northern hemisphere (D) steady north westerly anti-trade winds in southern hemisphere
Answer is = D
82. Humidity in the air is maximum in ____________?
(A) winter (B) summer (C) monsoon (D) autumn
Answer is = C
83. Sandstones belong to ______________?
(A) Argillaceous rocks (B) calcareous rocks (C) carbonaceous rocks (D) Arenaceous rocks
Answer is = D
84. The lunar eclipse occurs when ___________?
(A) Moon is between the earth and sun (B) Earth is between the sun and moon (C) Sun is between the earth and the moon (D) Earth is at right angles to the direction of the sun and the moon
Answer is = B
85. The high yielding varieties of crops possess which of the following characters____?
1. Ability to trap more solar energy
2. Ability to utilize more nutrients
3. High harvest index
4. Ability to use less water
(A) 1,2 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1,2 and 3 (D) 1 and 3
Answer is = C
86. Contour is a measure of ___________?
(A) Topography (B) rainfall (C) temperature (D) pressure
Answer is = A
87. Latitude is a measure of _____________?
(A) 0 (B) 30 (C) 60 (D) 90
Answer is = D
88. There is a seven difference in the climates of northern and southern hemispheres.
(A) due to rotation of earth around its axis (B) Due to revolution of earth around the sun on its orbit (C) both of the above (D) none of the above
Answer is = B
89. The area associated with the greatest frequency of earthquakes is ____________?
(A) eastern coastal areas of Asia (B) northern coastal areas of Eurasia (C) west coast of north and south America (D) western coastal areas of Africa.
Answer is = C
90. Cloud burst means ______________?
(A) Formation of artificial rain (B) Presence of scattered flakes of cloud in the sky (C) Showing of seeds of a crop in a cloudy weather (D) Abnormally heavy downpour of rain associated with a thunderstorm.
Answer is = D
91. Which one of the following is an ore of iron ______________?
(A) Bauxite (B) hematite (C) limonite (D) gypsum
Answer is = B
92. Which one of the following is correct _____________?
(A) all longitudes are not great circles (B) all longitudes and equator are great circles (C) all latitudes and Greenwich meridian are great circles (D) all latitudes and longitudes are great circles
Answer is = B
93. The rocks which are formed by direct cooling and solidification of magma are called______?
(A) Sedimentary rocks (B) Derivative rocks (C) Igneous rocks (D) Metamorphic rocks
Answer is = C
94. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Mediterranean type of climate ¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬¬____?
(A) warm winters (B) cold and dry summers (C) warm and dry summers and cold and wind winters (D) warm and wet summers and cold and dry winters.
Answer is = C
95.The shortest day in northern hemisphere is _________?
(A) 25 December (B) 22 December (C) 15 June (D) 22 June
Answer is = B
96.The earth revolves round the sun in its orbit by approx _________?
(A) 5 per day (B) 2 per day (C) 1 per day (D) 3 per day
Answer is = C
97. Vasco day game discovered the sea route to India via the Cape of Good Hope in _______________?
(A) 1494 (B) 1498 (C) 1502 (D) 1506
Answer is = B
98. one degree of longitude on the equator is equal to a distance of __________?
(A) 96 km (B) 80 km (C) 55 km (D) 112 km
Answer is = D
99. Which of the following countries has longest land frontiers ____________?
(A) Burma (B) Russia (C) China (D) Laos.
Answer is = C
100. Which of the following is not a Scandinavian country___________?
(A) Denmark (B) Belgium (C) Norway (D) none of these
Answer is = B

General Knowledge MCQs For PSC & CSS Exams

Psychology Mcqs Past Papers For Public Service Exams

Psychology Mcqs Past Papers For Public Service Exams

Psychology Mcqs Past Papers For Public Service Exams

1) The peripheral nervous system is made up of:
a) Axons and dendrites
b) The brain and the spinal cord
c) The autonomic and somatic nervous systems
d) The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems
e) None of these
2) The adrenal hormones which also appear to function as neurotransmitters in the brain are:
a) Dopamine and serotonin
b) Progesterone and testosterone
c) Epinephrine and nor epinephrine
d) Insulin and toblerone
e) None of these
3) The detection of physical energy emitted or reflected by physical objects: it occurs when energy in the external environment or the body stimulates receptors in the sense organs:
a) Cognition
b) Sensation
c) Perception
d) Adaptation
e) None of these
4) Which of the following is a dimension of visual experience?
a) Loudness
b) Pitch
c) Timbre
d) Brightness
e) None of these
5) All human senses evolved for the same purpose to:
a) Increase our ability to enjoy the environment
b) Make up more aware our feelings and internal state
c) Provide information that could improve our ability to communicate
d) Help us survive
e) None of these
6) The fovea and blind spot are both features of the:
a) Cornea
b) Lens
c) Retina
d) Pupil
e) None of these
7) Which of the following is the best example of a primary reinforcing?
a) Food
b) Money
c) Pay check
d) New clothes
e) None of these
8) Which of the following could be attributed to Tolman’s research?
a) Discovery of the law of effect
b) The concept of cognitive map
c) The negative effect of punishment
d) The role of classical conditioning in the formation of phobic disorders
e) None of these
9) Which of the following factors influence the impact of interference on learning?
a) The nature of the material being learned
b) The organization and meaningfulness of the information learned
c) The type of activity that flows studying
d) All of the above
e) None of these
10) Which of the following psychologists developed the need/drive theory of emotion?
a) Clark Hull
b) Abraham Maslow
c) Robert Plutchik
d) Water Cannon
e) None of these
11) Which of the following orders of Maslow’s hierarchy of need is correct?
a) Safety, physiological, belongingness, self-actualization, esteem
b) Belongingness, esteem, safety, physiological, self-actualization
c) Physiological, belongingness, safety, esteem, self-actualization
d) Physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, self-actualization
e) None of these
12) Central traits:
a) Were suggested by a behaviorist to explain behavior
b) Organize and control behavior across many situations
c) Are more situations specific than they are secondary traits
d) Are seen in growth-oriented individuals
e) None of these
13) Norms are influenced by:
a) The surrounding culture
b) The surrounding sub-culture
c) The context of the situation
d) All of the above
e) None of these
14) Discrepancies between attitudes lead to:
a) Prejudice
b) Cognitive dissonance
c) The fundamental attribution error
d) Relative deprivation
e) None of these
15) Many of the neo Freudians have modified Freud’s original theory of personality to give more emphasis to:
a) Childhood sexuality
b) Social and cultural factors
c) Differences between the sexes
d) Unconscious forces
e) None of these
16) Motivation is defined as inferred process within a person that causes organism to move toward:
a) A goal
b) All other organisms
c) A homeostatic state
d) Higher kevels in the hierarchy of needs
e) None of these
17) In which motivational conflicts are must chosen by “the lesser of two evils”
a) Approach-Approach
b) Approach-Avoidance
c) Avoidance-Avoidance
d) Multiple approach-avoidance
e) None of these
18) Which of the following identified universal symbolic images that appear in myths, art, dreams, and other expressions of the collective unconscious?
a) Freud
b) Adler
c) Jung
d) Horney
e) All of these
19) Raymond B Cattel advanced the study of personality traits by using a statistical method called:
a) Locus of control
b) Identification
c) Factor analysis
d) Phrenology
e) None of these
20) Perfection is a problem that is most associated with the:
a) Id
b) Ego
c) Superego
d) Ego and superego
e) None of these
2004 paper 2
8. Write only the correct answer in your Answer Book. Don’t reproduce the questions.
1) Which of the following represent correct sequence?
a) Zygote, fetus, embryo, neonate, infant
b) Zygote, embryo, neonate, fetus, infant
c) Embryo, zygote, fetus, neonate, infant
d) Zygote, embryo, fetus, neonate, infant
2) Maturation refers to development that occurs as a result of:
a) Genetically determined signals
b) Instinctive process
c) Homeostatic imbalances
d) An interaction between biology and environment
e) None of these
3) Which of the following is not one of the aspects of development studied by psychologists?
a) Universal aspects of development
b) Individual differences in development
c) Cultural differences in development
d) Immutable laws of development
e) None of these
4) Which of the following is most likely to lead to high job satisfaction?
a) Matching personality with occupation
b) Promotion practices based on seniority
c) Having an out going personality
d) Working alone
e) None of these
5) Which of the following improves worker skills and reduces frustration and stress?
a) Job training
b) Job analysis
c) Access to an employee assistance program
d) An organizational culture
e) None of these
6) The assessment tools upon which clinicians depends gather information about their clients belong in which of the following categories.
a) Interviews
b) Tests
c) Observations
d) All of these choices
e) None of these
7) Which of the following tests is likely to have the highest reliability?
a) The TAT
b) The Rorschach
c) The MMPI
d) The Draw-a-Person test
e) None of these
8) Clinicians attempting to systematically assess the abnormal behavior of a client will frequently:
a) Rely primarily on personality tests
b) Employ a battery of tests
c) Rely primarily on projective tests
d) Rely primarily on neuropsychological tests
e) None of these
9) The best definition of psychotherapy includes:
a) A sufferer, a healer and a systematic interaction between the two
b) A healer that uncovers unconscious conflicts and heals the personality
c) The removal of symptoms about which the patient complains
d) The use of talking and drugs about which the patient complains
e) None of these
10) Psycho dynamic therapists believe that maladaptive behavior stems from:
a) Disturbed thought patterns
b) Inappropriate learning patterns
c) A failure to live up one’s full potential
d) Emotional trauma experienced in childhood
e) None of these
11) Which of the following therapists make intensive use of role playing?
a) Client-centered therapists
b) Psychoanalytic therapists
c) Existential therapists
d) Gestalt therapists
e) None of these
12) Client-centered therapy is most consistent with the:
a) Behavioral approach
b) Cognitive approach
c) Psychodynamic approach
d) Humanistic approach
e) None of these
13) Illnesses that seem to result from an interaction of physical and psychological factors are called:
a) Hysterical
b) Psychosomatic
c) Somatic
d) Conversion disorders
e) None of these
14) Chromosomal mapping studies have found that:
a) Schizophrenia does not appear to have genetic components
b) Schizophrenia does appear to have a genetic component
c) Adoption studies do not reveal anything about schizophrenia
d) There is a single cause of schizophrenia
e) None of these
15) The leading cause of mind retardation is believed to be:
a) Fetal alcohol syndrome
b) Organic brain syndrome
c) Environmental factors
d) Inherited traits
e) None of these
16) Therapists who focus on altering faulty thought process are:
a) Cognitive therapists
b) Humanistic therapists
c) Biological therapists
d) Psychodynamic therapists
e) None of these
17) In general children who score well on IQ tests have parents who:
a) Pay for tutors and special schools
b) Have very high IQs
c) Punish them if they fail to do it well
d) Spend time with them and actively encourage their development
e) None of these
18) One hallmark of projective tests is that they:
a) Are multiphase
b) Are criterion referenced
c) Require responses to ambiguous stimuli
d) Measure only one trait
e) None of these
19) When psychological tests are used in personal selection, an important concern regarding the tests is:
a) Cost
b) Ease of administration
c) Validity
d) Objectivity
e) None of these
20) A conversion disorder is characterized by:
a) Functional impairment of a limb or sensory ability with no apparent physical cause
b) A constant fear of becoming seriously ill
c) Frequently vague complaints of physical symptoms
d) None of these
2005 paper 1
8. Write only the correct answer in your Answer Book. Don’t reproduce the questions.
1) By the perceptual organization of stimuli the person’s span of attention is:
a) Increased
b) Decreased
c) Divided
d) Unaffected
e) None of these
2) Figural after-effects pertain to distortion:
a) In memory of figures
b) Caused by ambiguity of figures
c) Caused by prolonged fixation of figures
d) Caused by oscillation of attention
e) None of these
3) One of the following is not a monocular depth cue:
a) Interposition
b) Relative moment
c) Convergence
d) Accommodation
e) None of these
4) The cerebellum and cerebrum are:
a) Functionally independent
b) Bilaterally symmetrical
c) Found in the mid-brain
d) In front of the central fissure
e) None of these
5) Factors predisposing an individual towards feeling of jealousy include:
a) Lack of intensity of feeling of love
b) Insecurity of self-conception
c) Self-hate
d) All of these
e) None of these
6) Copying behavior is:
a) Often unconscious
b) A form of habitual behavior
c) Always goal-directed
d) Usually carried out with minimum attention
e) None of these
7) Self-assertive behavior is an example primarily of:
a) An abundance motive
b) A stimulation motive
c) A survival motive
d) A security motive
e) None of these
8) The concept of homeostasis most closely associated with the name of:
a) Richter
b) Cannon
c) Levin
d) Warden
e) None of these
9) The approach-approach conflict involves:
a) A stable equilibrium
b) An unstable equilibrium
c) An oscillation of (a) and (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b) (c)
e) None of these
10) The two parts of autonomic nervous system are:
a) Voluntary and involuntary
b) Cerebrospinal and cortical
c) Thalamus and hypothalamus
d) Sympathetic and parasympathetic
e) None of these
11) Which one of the following is not the law of perceptual grouping?
a) Proximity
b) Similarity constancy
c) Constancy
d) Continuation
e) None of these
12) In Pavlovian conditioning the learned response is:
a) CS
b) CR
c) UCS
d) UCR
e) None of these
13) Thorndike’s “Law of Effect” was an early form of the present day principle of:
a) Extinction
b) Contiguity
c) Reinforcement
d) Trial and error
e) None of these
14) When new acquisition improves retention of the old, we speak of:
a) Positive transfer
b) Negative transfer
c) Reproductive facilitation
d) Reproductive interference
e) None of these
15) Of the following one is not a measure of retention:
a) Recognition
b) Recall
c) Relearning
d) Reminiscence
e) None of these
16) Typically the curve obtained in discrimination learning in animals is:
a) Positively accelerated
b) Linearly accelerated
c) Negatively accelerated
d) S-shaped
e) None of these
17) Development of any skill depends intimately on:
a) Muscle facility
b) Feedback
c) Abstractions
d) Kinesthetic stimulation
e) None of these
18) The theory of personality in which “basic anxiety” is the primary concept was associated with the name:
a) Fromm
b) Sullivan
c) Horney
d) Murray
e) None of these
19) In the perception of people, feedback will serve to:
a) Correct an incorrect initial perception
b) Confirm an accurate initial perception
c) Stabilize and inaccurate initial perception
d) Nay of the above would be true
e) None of these
20) The essential feature of client-centered therapy is:
a) The giving of reassurance to the client
b) The facilitating the client to arrive at his own insight about his problem
c) Its directive character
d) It’s emphasis upon searching for deep unconscious aspects of the problem
e) None of these
2005 paper 2
8. Write only the correct answer in your Answer Book. Don’t reproduce the questions.
1) Studies on maturation and learning have indicated:
a) That environmental stimulation may effect growth
b) That some factor may affect normal development
c) That the two follow independent course
d) Both (a) and (b) above
e) None of these
2) The over-all bodily and mental curves for man:
a) Diverge at the age of puberty
b) Run parallel course
c) Show a drop at the age of puberty
d) Both (b) and (c)
e) None of these
3) Psychosomatic disorders are best illustrated by:
a) Asthma caused by anxiety
b) Neurotic anxiety
c) Depression caused by tuberculosis
d) Over-eating
e) None of these
4) Which one of the following is not listed as classification of psychoneurosis?
a) Phobic reactions
b) Conversion reactions
c) Delusional reactions
d) Neurasthenic reactions
e) None of these
5) So-called “functional” and “organic” psychoses are:
a) Really both functional in origin
b) Really both organic in origin
c) Clearly differentiated as to the origin
d) Not clearly distinguishable
e) None of these
6) Psychodrama is one of the psychotherapeutic techniques which basically involve situations representing:
a) Ego blocking
b) Superego blocking
c) Primary ego
d) All of the above
e) None of these
7) Psychodynamic therapist believes that maladaptive behavior stems from:
a) Emotional trauma experienced in childhood
b) A failure to live up to one’s full potential
c) Disturbed thought patterns
d) Inappropriate learning patterns
e) None of these
8) The semantic differential scale is used mainly to measure:
a) Values
b) Opinions
c) Attitudes
d) Interests
e) None of these
9) While selecting a psychological test for personnel selection, main concern regarding the test is:
a) Cost
b) Ease of administration
c) Validity
d) Objectively
e) None of these
10) The concept of introversion and extroversion was advanced by:
a) Spranger
b) Jung
c) Kretchmer
d) Jeansch
e) None of these
11) Emergency reactions refer to:
a) Individual’s attempt to cope with an emergency
b) Bodily changes accompanying emotions of anger and fear
c) Feeling of startle when suddenly stimulated
d) Ways that the individual seeks to achieve emotional control
e) None of these
12) Studies show that an “authoritarian” family tends to produce an adolescent who is:
a) Dependent and obedient
b) Independent but reserved
c) Surface-compliant but rebellious underneath
d) Self reliant
e) None of these
13) The non-directive approach characterizes:
a) Psychoanalysis
b) Behavior modification
c) Client-centered therapy
d) Hypnosis
e) None of these
14) Child-rearing practices in Pakistan
a) Differ little from those in other countries
b) Differ from one social class to another
c) Have changed very little over past 50 years
d) Are now pretty much the same from one social class to the next
e) None of the above observation is correct
15) In Maslow’s theory of personality the main concept is that of:
a) Functional autonomy
b) Acquired drives
c) Interpersonal relations
d) Self-actualization
e) None of these
16) According to Erickson’s theory, the struggle during adolescence is:
a) Intimacy vs. isolation
b) Initiative vs. guilt
c) Identity vs. confusion
d) Competence vs. inferiority
e) None of these
17) According to clinical psychologists unconscious is:
a) A construct
b) A place
c) A thing
d) An observation
e) None of these
18) Disagreeing with Freud, Erickson emphasized more on:
a) Conflict
b) Racial memory
c) Adulthood
d) Early habits
e) None of these
19) The prototype of the modern intelligence test for children was developed by:
a) Terman
b) Wechsler
c) Binet
d) Stanford
e) None of these
20) In Thurston’s method of attitude scaling, the key factor is the use of:
a) Numbers
b) Judges
c) Reinforcement
d) Positive and negative items
e) None of these
2006 paper 1
Compulsory Question of Paper I
The term “Phenomenology” refers to:
(a) The science of perception
(b) The scientific study of “queer” occurrences
(c) The “naïve” description of our immediate experiences
(d) A detailed analysis of our sensations
(e) None of the above
The degree of concentration or dilution of a colour is known as its:
(a) Hue
(b) Saturation
(c) Volume
(d) Brightness
(e) None of these
Difference in perception among species depends upon:
(a) Habitat
(b) Complexity of nervous system
(c) Receptor mechanisms
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the avove
As compared with adult’s perception, the child’s percepotion tends to be:
(a) Les suspceptible to illusion
(b) Longer in time-perspectivce
(c) More fully characterized by constancy
(d) More fully affected by physiognomic properties
(e) None of the avove
As compared with the figure, the ground appears to be;
(a) Better structured
(b) Continuous and unbroken
(c) Better localized
(d) More salient in attention
(e) None of these
The concept of adaptation level was introduced by:
(a) Brown
(b) Wertheimer
(c) Kohler
(d) Helson
(e) None of these
By the perceptual organization of stimuli the person’s span of attention is:
(a) Increased
(b) Decreased
(c) Devided
(d) Unaffected
(e) None of these
The cue of accomodation is especially effective for:
(a) Long distances
(b) Short distances
(c) Moving objects
(d) both (a) and (c)
(e) None of these
The area of the brain where all the fibers from the skin senses get connected before entering cereberal cortes is the:
(a) Cerebellum
(b) Spinal Cord
(c) Thalamus
(d) Reticular formation
(e) None of these
The so called primary emotions include:
(a) joy, fear, anger, grief
(b) pain, fear, hate, love
(c) shame, guilt, anger, grief
(d) all of the above
(e) None of these
Factors predisposing an individual toeards feeling of jealousy include:
(a) Insecurity in self-conception
(b) Lack of intesnity of feelings of love
(c) Self hate
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
Behaviour episodes are:
(a) Organized sequences of behaviour
(b) Characterized by a constant direction of action
(c) Ofter overlapping
(d) All of the above
(e) None of these
Self-assertive behaviour is an example primarily of:
(a) a stimulation motive
(b) a security motive
(c) an abundancy motive
(d) a survival motive
(e) None of these
The emergency-control branch of human nervous system is:
(a) Sympathetic
(b) Parasympathetic
(c) Cerebrospinal
(d) Ventromedial
(e) None of these
The “local” stimulus theory of hunger is associated with the name of:
(a) Anderson
(b) Beach
(c) Cannon
(d) Helson
(e) None of these
Examples of ductless glands are:
(a) Gonads, slivary glands, adrenals
(b) tear glands, salivary glands, gonads
(c) Thyroid, pitutary, tear gland
(d) Adrenal, thyroid, gonads
(e) None of these
In conditioning studies CR and UR:
(a) are usually, but no always, identical
(b) are rarely identical
(c) Have not similarity
(d) Are always identical
(e) None of these
A curve which shows an overall negative slope may show:
(a) negative acceleration
(b) positive acceleration
(c) linear acceleration
(d) any one of the above
(e) None of these
The development of any kind of skill depends intimately upon;
(a) Muscle facility
(b) Abstract knowledge
(c) Feedback
(d) Kinesthetic stimulation
(e) None of these
Aphasia seems to be correlated with lesions to the:
(a) Temporal lobes of brain
(b) Motor Cortex of brain
(c) Cerebellar cortex of brain
(d) Frontal lobes of brain
(e) None of these
2007 paper 1
8. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.
(1) The four main goals of psychological research are:
(a) Description, experimentation, prediction and control
(b) Description, explanation, assessment and manipulation
(c) Description, prediction, assessment and manipulation
(d) Description, explanation, control and validity
(e) None of these
(2) A verifiable scientific finding is one that can be:
(a) Observed in real life
(b) Proven impossible to test
(c) Proven valid, accurate and indisputable
(d) Replicated with the same result
(e) None of these
(3) An independent variable is:
(a) The only variable of interest
(b) A variable that is independently verified
(c) A variable whose value depends on that of the dependent variable
(d) The variable that is manipulated by experiment
(e) None of these
(4) The main regions of brain are the:
(a) Hind brain, forebrain, midbrain
(b) Cerebral cortex, forebrain, hind brain and midbrain
(c) Forebrain, midbrain and anterior region
(d) Central hemisphere, and left hemisphere
(e) None of these
(5) Of the three different types of the neurons, sensory neurons are unique in that day:
(a) Carry impulses from the brain and spinal cord to parts of the body that then respond to the impulse.
(b) Receive information from the receptor cells and send this information to the brain or spinal cord.
(c) Reside exclusively in the peripheral nervous system has two functions, to send signals to motor neurons, and to receive signals from receptors.
(d) None of these
(6) The four parts of the neurons are:
(a) Axon, cell body, myelin sheath and dendrites
(b) Axon, dendrites, nucleus and terminal buttons
(c) Axon, cell body, dendrites and terminal buttons
(d) Axon, dendrites, myelin sheath and modes of ranvier
(e) None of these
(7) Effectors and receptor cells are different in:
(a) Their composition and speed of conduction
(b) The direction in which they carry nerve impulses
(c) The corresponding branch of the nervous system to which they belong
(d) The effectors never connect with the brain, while receptors receive information from the brain.
(e) None of these
(8) Three dimensional perception of the world is referred to as:
(a) Stereoposis
(b) Stroboscopy
(c) Multiple perspectives
(d) Normal vision
(e) None of these
(9) Perpetual constancy refers to:
(a) Perception of an object remaining the same even when our immediate sensation of the object changes.
(b) Perceptual tendency to group objects together on the basis of their similarity.
(c) Perception of an object’s changing even though the object stays the same
(d) Tendency to close up, incomplete objects into already existing perceptual shapes
(e) None of these
(10) Gestaltists refer to the fact that we perceive smooth flowing forms more readily than discrete forms as:
(a) Similarity
(b) Symmetry
(c) Holistic perception
(d) Continuity
(e) None of these
(11) Classical conditioning is a process whereby:
(a) Certain response result from certain stimulus presentations
(b) The CS is always presented before the UCS
(c) Actions that are reward tend to the strengthened
(d) Learning occurs when a stimulus is paired with a certain response
(e) None of these
(12) Edward Tolman’s experiments with rats showed that:
(a) Learning could be achieved without reinforcement
(b) Rats could learn second order conditioning in the absence of food
(c) All rats behaviour could be analyzed by stimulus – response contingencies
(d) The law of effect was not valid in all animals
(e) None of these
(13) Albert’s Bandura’s social learning theory holds that:
(a) Learning is best in group settings
(b) Learning can be achieved by observing and modeling another person’s behaviour
(c) Mere exposure to an aggressive scene always later elicits aggressive behaviour
(d) Social learning takes place at an unconscious level
(e) None of these
(14) According to Marlow’s hierarchy of needs, individuals:
(a) May bypass a level in their quest for self actualization
(b) Must satisfy self-esteem needs before achieving belongingness and love needs
(c) Always end their lives self actualized
(d) Must satisfy esteem needs before the process of self-actualization
(e) None of these
(15) Research by Edward Deci has suggested that extrinsic motivators are more effective when they are:
(a) Stated up front so that the individual knows what he or she will be receiving
(b) Tangible and easily identifiable
(c) Received immediately before the task is accomplished
(d) Intangible, such as verbal praise or smile
(e) None of these
(16) Goals can help us motivated by all the following except:
(a) Focusing our attention
(b) Encouraging alternative ways of achieving goals
(c) Allowing us the freedom to be spontaneous in our activities
(d) Mobilizing our resources
(e) None of these
(17) Psychodynamic determinism refers to:
(a) Behaviour that is rules by forces over which we have no control
(b) Behaviour that is preconscious in origin
(c) Id impulses that will forever remain unfulfilled
(d) The delimiting characteristics of the superego
(e) None of these
(18) According to Freudian, dream terminology, condensation refers to:
(a) Repressed urges that find disguised outlets for expression
(b) The bizarre, irrational quality of dreams
(c) The process whereby unacceptable thoughts or impulses are combined into a single dream image
(d) The process whereby one thing may stand for another in dream interpretation
(e) None of these
(19) Group popularization is an affect whereby:
(a) Extreme opinions in a group becomes moderate with increased group interaction
(b) Group members moderate positions become polarized with increased group interaction
(c) Group decisions represent an exaggeration of the group members initial positions
(d) The group members’ main concern is to maintain unanimity and group cohesion
(e) None of these
(20) Group think is unlikely to occur when which of the following factors is present?
(a) There is a high degree of stress in the decision-making process
(b) There are clear objective in the decision making process
(c) The group is homogeneous in composition
(d) The group is ideologically isolated
(e) None of these
COMPULSORY QUESTION8. Write only the correct answer in the Answer Book. Do not reproduce the questions.
(1) The study of the hereditary transmission of attributes is:
(a) Heritability, biological traits
(b) Genetics, genes
(c) Adaptability, dominant and recessive traits
(d) Mutation, differentiation
(e) None of these
(2) A male born with an extra Y chromosome, XYY, shows some evidence of increased aggressiveness and typically scores lower than normal on intelligence tests:
(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b) Supermale Syndrome
(c) XXX syndrome
(d) Kinfefelter’s syndrome
(e) None of these
(3) The material of which chromosomes are composed is called:
(a) Deoxyribonucleic acid
(b) Genes
(c) Atoms
(d) Myelin
(e) None of these
(4) Maturation refers to:
(a) The attainment of successive stages of cognitive development.
(b) Relatively stable changes in an individual’s thought and behavior or a result of biological processor of aging.
(c) Relatively stable changes in an individual’s thought and behavior as a result of accumulating experience.
(d) The development of an individual thought and behavior due to the interactions of biological and environmental factors
(e) None of these
(5) According to one definition, behavior is abnormal if it is:
(a) Labeled as abnormal by the society in which the individual lives
(b) Not under conscious control by the individual
(c) Statistically typical
(d) Adaptive to the individual
(e) None of these
(6) Anxiety disorders may be characterized by:
(a) Psychotic symptoms
(b) Low affect
(c) Telegraphic thoughts
(d) Somatic symptoms
(e) None of these
(7) Two examples of mood disorders are:
(a) Major depression and generalized anxiety disorder
(b) Obsessive compulsive disorder and manic-depressive disorder
(c) Major depression and dipolar disorder
(d) Major depression and obsessive compulsive disorder
(e) None of these
(8) An individual cannot remember events during an immediately following a serious airplane crash:
(a) Dissociative amnesia
(b) Dissociative fugue
(c) Retrograde amnesia
(d) Fractured amnesia
(e) None of these
(9) A type of schizophrenia characterized by hallucinations, delusions, and diffuse psychological organization is referred to as:
(a) Undifferentiated
(b) Disorganized
(c) Residual
(d) Fragmented
(e) None of these
(10) An individual who is identified as having a borderline personality disorder shows:
(a) Persecutory thoughts
(b) Exhibitionistic tendencies
(c) Instability in mood and social relations
(d) Apathy and indifference to the opinions of others
(e) None of these
(11) Which symptoms is not typically characteristic of an autistic child?
(a) Impairment in communication
(b) Hyperactivity
(c) Restricted range of interest
(d) Social isolation
(e) None of these
(12) The Stanford-Binet, WAIS-R and WISC are known to have very high reliability. This means that:
(a) A pretest has been given to a representative
(b) The test yields consistent results, for example-retesting
(c) The test measures what it is supposed to measure
(d) The result of the test will be distributed on a bell shaped curve
(e) None of these
(13) The experience that has the clearest, most profound effect on intellectual development:
(a) Being enrolled in Head Start Program
(b) Growing up in an economically disadvantaged home or neighbourhood
(c) Being raised in a very neglected home
(d) Being exposed to very stimulating toys and lessons in infancy
(14) A therapist who encourages clients to relate their dreams and searches its roots is:
(a) Psychoanalysis
(b) Humanistic therapy
(c) Person-centered therapy
(d) Cognitive therapy
(e) None of these
(15) The most enthusiastic or optimistic view of Psychotherapy comes from:
(a) Outcome research
(b) Psychologist Hans Eyesenck
(c) Reports of clinicians
(d) An NIMH study of treatment for depression
(e) None of these
(16) An approach that seeks to alleviate poverty and to other stresses that put people at high risk for developing psychological disorders is:
(a) Biomedical therapy
(b) The humanistic approach
(c) Empathy and active listening
(d) Preventive mental health
(e) None of these
(17) If a person washes his hands 100 times a day, the behavior will be labeled disordered because it is:
(a) Unjustified an maladaptive
(b) An atypical behavior
(c) Not explained by the medical model
(d) Harmful and disturbing to others
(18) The DSM-111-R has improved reliability because it helps mental health workers base their diagnosis on:
(a) A few well-defined categories
(b) In-depth history of the patient
(c) The patient’s observable behaviour
(d) The theories of Pinel, Freud and others
(e) None of these
(19) An episode of intense dread, which is typically accompanied by feelings of terror and dizziness, chest pain etc. is called:
(a) Generalized or chronic anxiety
(b) A social phobia
(c) A panic attack
(d) An obsessive fear
(e) None of these
(20) Amnesia, fugue and multiple personality involve gaps in awareness, for example, sudden loss of memory or change of identity. These Psychological disorders are called:
(a) Anxiety disorders
(b) Dissociative disorders
(c) Mood disorders
(d) Memory disorders
(e) None of these

Psychology Mcqs Past Papers For Public Service Exams

Biology Complete Important Mcqs For Medical Entry Test Preparation

Biology Complete Important Mcqs For Medical Entry Test Preparation

  • Biology Complete Important Mcqs For Medical Entry Test Preparation

  • Ecology deals with
    a) Biotic factors of environment
    b) Abiotic factors of Environment
    c) Environmental relations
    d) Both a&b
  • Histology is study of living organisms at ___________ level.
    a) Cell
    b) Organ
    c) Tissue
    d) Community
  • Study of Geographical Distribution of animals is known as
    a) Biogeography
    b) Zoogeography
    c) Animal Geo graphics
    d) Non of above
  • Unicellular Plasmodium is studied under the branch of biology called
    a) Microbiology
    b) Cell Biology
    c) Parasitology
    d) Pathology
  • Study of life of ocean is
    a) Sea Biology
    b) Oceanography
    c) Marine Biology
    d) Ocean Ecology
  • Insulin preparation comes under which branch of biology
    a) Social Biology
    b) Biotechnology
    c) Genetic Engineering
    d) Parasitology
  • What is the right distribution of levels of study from smaller to larger
    a) Specie, community, population , Ecosystem
    b) tissue, cell, organ, system
    c) Individual, Specie, population, community
    d) Organelle, tissue, organ, System
  • Term Vaccinization was discovered by
    a) Edward Jenner
    b) Louis Pasteur
    c)Emil Fischer
    d) Robert Khoshland
  • Biopesticides have advantage over chemical pesticides because
    a) Pests can not develop resistance against them
    b) They are cheaper
    c) Non Pollutant
    d) All of above
  • Cloning surely produces organisms that have identical
    a) genotype
    b) phenotype
    c) genome
    d) All of above
  • 1. The mechanism by which organisms maintain the stability of their cellular environment is known as;
    a. Homeostasis
    b. Normal health
    c. Structural adaption
    d. Osmoregulation
  • 2. When the concentration of external medium is equal to the concentration of internal medium of cell is called;
    a. Hypertonic
    b. Hypotonic
  • c. Isotonic
    d. Heterotonic
  • 3. Brassica and rose plant belong to group of plants;
    a. Hydrophytes
    b. Mesophytes
    c. Xerophytes
    d. Succulents
  • 4. Animals which are unable to adjust their internal salt concentration according to external environment is;
    a. Anhydrobiosis
    b. Osmoregulators
    c. Thermoregulatory
    d. Osmoconformers
  • 5. Which one of the following animal can survive without drinking water?
    a. Kangaroo rat
    b. Pig
    c. Kangaroo
    d. Camel
  • 6. Nitrogeneous wastes are produced as a result of;
    a. Photosynthesis
    b. Ingestion
  • c. Assimilation
    d. Deamination
  • 7. Fresh water protozoans pumped out excess water by a special structure called;
    a. Oral groove
    b. Contractile vacuole
    c. Pellicle
    d. Vacuole
  • 8. The term glycogenesis means, the conversion of;
    a. glucose to Glycogen
    b. Lactic acid to Glycogen
    c. Glycogen to Glucose
    d. Amino acid to Glycogen
  • 9. Which one of the following nitrogenous compound is much more soluble in water?
    a. Uric acid
    b. Urea
    c. Ammonia
    d. Creatine
  • 10. The removal of amino group from amino acid is called;
    a. Transamination
    b. Deamination
    c. Translocation
    d. Transposition
  • 11. The amount of water required for the removal of 2 g of ammonia is;
    a. 200 ml
    b. 500 ml
    c. 100 ml
    d. 1000 ml
  • 12. In flatworms excretory system consists of a net work of closed tubules with out internal openings are called;
    a. Nephridia
    b. Protonephridia
    c. Metanephridia
    d. Nephrostome
  • 13. According to the removal of nitrogenous wastes, reptiles and birds are the examples of;
    a. Uricotelic
    b. Ammonotelic
    c. Ureotelic
    d. Ammoniotelic
  • 14. The functional unit of human kidney is called;
    a. Nephridia
    b. Collecting tubule
    c. Nephron
    d. Nephrotome
  • 15. The end product of haemoglobin is the;
    a. Allontoin
    b. Bilirubin
    c. Xanthine
    d. Creatinine
  • 16. All of the following are the plasma proteins synthesize by Liver, except that of;
    a. Albumin
    b. Prothrombin
    c. Glycogen
    d. Fibrinogen
  • 17. Liver is a large organ, making the body weight up to;
    a. 2 — 3 %
    b. 3 — 6 %
    c. 1 — 2 %
    d. 3 — 5 %
  • 18. The term Glycogenolysis means, the conversion of;
    a. Glucose into lactic acid
    b. Glucose into Glycogen
    c. Glucose into alcohol
    d. Glucose into amino acid
  • 19. Liver store tke vitamins A, D, E & K, which are the mainly;
    a. Fat soluble
    b. Cold water soluble
    c. Alcoholic soluble
    d. Hot water soluble
  • 20. As human kidney has less than one percent of total body weight and with each cardiac cycle it receive the bllod of about;
    a. 50 %
    b. 30 %
    c. 20 %
    d. 25 %
  • 21. Creatinine is produced in;
    a. Liver
    b. Muscles
    c. Kidney
    d. Blood
  • 22. All are related to urea cycle, except that of;
    a. Citruline
    b. Ornithene
    c. Arginine
    d. Creatinine
  • 23. Urea leaves the kidney through;
    a. Ureter
    b. Urinary bladder
    c. Urethra
    d. pelvis
  • 24. Urea is produced by a cyclic process in the liver known as;
    a. Urea or Ornithene cycle
    b. Urea or Citruline cycle
    c. Urea or Arginine cycle
    d. Both a & b
  • 25. In man the expulsion of urine from the body the urethra is known as;
    a. Urination
    b. Elimination
    c. Micturition
    d. Filtration
  • 26. Each nephron has a mass of blood capillaries which are partially enclosed by the blind ending region of the tubule is called;
    a. Glomerulus
    b. Bowman’s capsule
    c. Loop of henle
    d. Vasa recta
  • 27. The inner layer of the Bowman’s capsule is made up o un-usual cells called;
    a. Endothelial cells
    b. Baesment membrane cells
    c. Ciliated cells
    d. Podocytes
  • 28. the blood pressure in kidneys is higher that in the other organs this high pressure is maintained because;
    a. The afferent arteriole has a large diameter and efferent arteriole has a smaller diameter
    b. Of the foot like process of Podocytes
    c. Because of the Bowman’s capsule
    c. The efferent arreriole has a large diameter than the afferent arteriole
  • 29. Marine mammal such as whale has a very thick layer of isulating fat called blubber just under the skin, which one of the is not related to the adaptive value of this fat?
    a. Because it is insoluble in water, so does not affect the osmotic balance of the cells
    b. As fat is an energy storing compound, so it is utilized by the animal when storage of food
    c. Fat has low energy contents as compared to other energy storing compound such as glycogen
    d. Fat ha an insulating function and having low heat conductivity
  • 30. Which part of the Nephron maintains the normal pH of human blood?
    a. Bowman’s capsule
    b. Ascending prtion of henle loop
    c. Descending portion of henle loop
    d. Collecting duct
  • 31. Which one the following properties of water is the main contributory factor enabling homeotherms to adapt, to a range of environment?
    a. Water has a high heat of vaporization
    b. Water has high surface tension
    c. Water has maximum density at 4 Co
    d. It has a low viscocity
  • 32. Which of the following is a function of the lever?
    a. Regulation of plasma bicarbonate ions
    b. Storage of vitamin C
    c. Production of plasma albumin
    d. Production granulocytes
  • 33. Which of the following is an endothermic?
    a. Humming birds
    b. Bat
    c. Fish
    d. Birds
  • 34. Human maintains their high body temperature with in a narrow range of about;
    a. 36 — 38 oC
    b. 35 — 37 oC
    c. 37 — 38 oC
    d. 37 — 39 oC
  • 35. In human being body temperature is regulated by a part of brain; the
    a. Thalamus
    b. Hypothalamus
    c. Medulla oblongata
    d. Cerebellum
  • 36. Process of reabsorption is the movement of materials from;
    a. Filtrate to Glomerulus
    b. Filtrate to blood capillaries
    c. Glomerulus to filtrate
    d. Pelvis to filtrate
  • 37. Which of the following chemicals displaces the set point of the hypothalamus?
    a. Antigen
    b. Antibodies
    c. Antibiotics
    d. Pyrogen
  • 38. The most common kidney stone is;
    a. Calcium stone
    b. Oxalate stone
    c. Uric acid stone
    d. Carbonate stone
  • 39. The nitrogenous excretory compounds formed in Earth-worm are the;
    a. Urea
    b. Ammonia
    c. Both a & b
    d. Uric acid
  • 1. The matrix of the bone is composed of;
    a. Calcium phosphate
    b. Collagen
    c. Chitin
    d. Calcium carbonate
  • 2. Hydrostatic skeleton is pressent in;
    a. E.Worm & Jelly fish
    b. Cockroach
  • c. Cray fish
    d. Millipedes
  • 3. The most rigid connective tissues are the;
    a. Tendons
    b. Ligaments
    c. Cartilage
  • d. Bones
  • 4. All of the following are related to cranial bones, except that of;
    a. Parietal
    b. Occipital
    c. Vomer
    d. Frontal
  • 5. The structure formed by the fusion of anterior five pelvic vertebrae is the;
    a. Axis
    b. Sacrum
    c. Atlas
    d. Coccyx
  • 6. Which one of the following posses single occipital condyle?
    a. Fishes & Reptiles
    b. Birds & Mammals
    c. Birds & Amphibians
    d. Reptiles & Birds
  • 7. The antagonistic arrangement of skeletal muscles means the movement of muscles;
    a. In the same direction
    b. Against each other
    c. with out friction
    d. With out contraction & relaxation
  • 8. Which one deos not take place during repair of bone?
    a. Chondrocytes formation
    b. Hematoma formation
    c. Callus formation
    d. Bony callus
  • 9. which one is not correct about the sliding filament model of muscle contraction?
    a. Length of A band is reduced
    b. Thick and thin filaments slide over each other
    c. Z – lines come lose together
    d. The I – band shortens
  • 10. The fundamental contractile unit of a skeletal muscle is called;
    a. I – band
    b. sarcolemma
    c. Sarcomeres
    d. H – zone
  • 11. Which one of the following acts as a shock absorber to cushion the tibia and the femur where they come together?
    a. Central disc
    b. Ligament
    c. Cartilage
    d. Tendons
  • 12. A muscle is a muscle;
    a. Bundle
    b. Fiber
    c. Filament
    d. Fibril
  • 13. The original function, in the first vertebrates, of the skeleton was to provide;
    a. Support for locomotion
    b. Minerals
    c. blood cells
    d. protection from enemies
  • 14. Which one of the following connects the bone to bone?
    a. Tendon
    b. Cartilage
    c. Disc
    d. ligament
  • 15. The original function is still performed today by bones of the;
    a. Jaw
    b. Pelvis
    c. Skull and rib cage
    d. Thigh
  • 16. Which one of the following is likely to have the strongest leg bones?
    a. Jockey
    b. Swimmer
    c. Golfer
    d. Weight lifter
  • 17. The fundamental, repeating unit of a skeletal myofibril is the;
    a. Motor unit
    b. Myosin cross bridge
    c. Sarcomere
    d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • 18. According to the now-established sliding- filament model of muscle contraction, the molecules that move o shorten a muscle are;
    a. Creatine phosphate
    b. Collagen
    c. Myosin
    d. Actin
  • 19. Cross bridges, which connect the two molecules of a fibril during a muscle contraction, are made of;
    a. Troponin
    b. Tropomyosin
    c. Actin
    d. Myosin
  • 20. An oxygen debt develops during;
    a. An aerobic work
    b. Aerobic work
    c. Sarcoplasmic release
    d. Tetanus
  • 21. The ion that must be present for binding of the cross bridges is;
    a. sodium ion
    b. Potassium ion
    c. Calcium ion
    d. Magnesium ion
  • 22. The all-or-non phenomenon of muscle contraction refers to a maximum contraction or no contraction of a;
    a. Muscle
    b. Muscle fiber
    c. Muscle bundle
    d. Muscle fibril
  • 23. An aerobic work becomes continue painful because of an accumulation of;
    a. Lactic acid
    b. Carbon dioxide
    c. Acetic acid
    d. Calcium ions
  • 24. An all-out sprint cannot continue for more than about 45 seconds because the muscles;
    a. Accumulate acetylcholine on their plasma membranes
    b. Accumulate too much Creatine phosphate
    c. Run out of glycogen
    d. Run out of oxygen
  • 25. The depression used for articulation of femur is called;
    a. Ischium
    b. Pubis
    c. Ilium
    d. Acetabulum
  • 26. The mammals used on the hoofed tip of the toes are called;
    a. Unguligrades
    b. Plantigrades
    c. Digitigrades
    d. Saltatorials
  • 27. The most prehistoric extinct bipedal vertebrates were the;
    a. Lobe finned fishes
    b. Amphibians
    c. Reptiles
    d. Mammals
  • 28. keel the modified bone of sternum is present in;
    a. Dipnoi
    b. Reptiles
    c. Birds
    d. Mammals
  • 29. The stream-line body structure is present in;
    a. Reptiles
    b. Fishes
    c. Mammals
    d. Amphibians
  • 30. Star fish moves with the help of;
    a. Caudal fin
    b. Myonemes
    c. Tube feet
    d. Foot
  • 31. Which of the following animal show accordion like locomotion?
    a. Jelly fish
    b. Earth-worm
    c. Tape-worm
    d. Amoeba
  • 32. In man the contraction of which of the following muscles make the arm straight?
    a. Triceps Brachii
    b. Brachialis
    c. Biceps Brachii
    d. Brachioradialis
  • 33. during contraction of muscles the calcium ions released from;
    a. Sarcomeres
    b. T – tubules
    c. Bone marrow
    d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • 34. A grass-hopper moves from place to place when it muscles;
    a. Pull it bones
    b. Push it bones
    c. Push it external plates
    d. Pull its external plates
  • 35. An earth-worm moves from place to place;
    a. Peristalic waves of contracions of circular and longitudinal muscles
    b. To and fro movements of many tiny parapodia
    c. Many small paseudopodia called Setae
    d. Rolling movements caused by statocysts
  • 36. Tiny animals, such as the larvae of Cnidarians, move from place to place chiefly by;
    a. Cytoplasmic streaming
    b. The beating movement of cilia
    c. Contraction of muscle cells
    d. Amoeboid movement
  • 37. The to-fro-movements of cilia and flagella in euglena & paramecium are caused by;
    a. Sliding microtubules
    b. Contracting microfilaments
    c. Elongating cell membranes
    d. Changes in turgor pressure
  • 38. Which of the following is mismatched?
    a. Slightly moveable joint-vertebrate
    b. Hinge joint-Hip
    c. Synovial joint-elbow
    d. Immovable joint-Sutures in cranium
  • 39. Which of these is direct source of energy?
    a. Adenosine Triphosphate
    b. Lactic acid
    c. Creatine phosphate
    d. Both a & b
  • 40. When muscles contract;
    a. Sarcomeres increases in size
    b. Myosin slides past actin
    c. The “H-zone” disappears
    d. Calcium is taken up calcium storage sites
  • 41. The chest cage of man is supported by number of ribs;
    a. Twenty four only
    b. Twelve pairs
    c. Ten pairs
    d. Both a & b
  • 42. during bone fracture the mass of clotted blood is called;
    a. Remodeling
    b. Hematoma
    c. reduction
    d. Bony callus
  • 1. Viral genes are made of
    a. RNA only
    b. DNA only
    c. Either DNA or RNA
    d. Either protein or nucleic acid
  • 2. A virion is a
    a. Virus
    b. Viral ribosome
  • c. Viral lysosomes
    d. Viral gene
  • 3. An isolated virus is not considered living since it
    a. Separates into tw inerts part
    b. Cannot metabolize
    c. Rapidly loses its genome
    d. Is coated with air-tight , chemically inert sheild
  • 4. Most RNA viruses carry a gene for an enzyme that uses viral RNA as template in the synthesis of more viral RNA this enzyme is
    a. Reverse transcriptase
    b. RNA polymerase
  • c. Viral nuclease
    d. RNA replicase
  • 5. The enzymes involved in viral replication are synthesized
    a. On the viral ribosome
    b. By the host cell
    c. On the interior surface of the viral membrane
    d. On the interior surface of the viral coat
  • 6. Much of the research on gene expression has been done with E.coli, which inhibits the human intestine.This organism is a
    a. Plasmid
    b. Virus
    c. Bacterium
    d. Protozoan
  • 7. In general bacterial genes are regulated at the time of
    a. Transcription
    b. Post-transcription
    c. Translation
    d. Cojugation
  • 8. When DNA is exchanged via eytoplasmic bridges between two bacteria the process is called
    a. Transduction
    b. Conjugation
    c. Transformation
    d. Recombination
  • 9. When a bacteriophage in its lytic phase carries some of the bacterium’s partially digested chromosome with it to another host cell the process is called
    a. Conjugation
    b. Transformation
    c. Transduction
    d. Restricted transduction
  • 10. A bacteriophage with a lysogenic cycle must have genes that are
    a. Made of RNA
    b. Made of double-stranded DNA
    c. Made of single-stranded RNA or DNA
    d. With in a circular nucleic acid molecule
  • 11. which of the following fungus is used to give the flavour , aroma and Characteristics colour to some cheese?
    a. Yeast
    b. Ergot fungi
    c. Aspergillus
    d. Penicillium
  • 12. According to mode respiration which one of the following group of bacteria can grow either in the presence or absence of oxygen?
    a. Facultativebacteria ( E.coli )
    b. Microaeerophilic ( campylobacter )
    c. Pseudomonas
  • 13. which one is true for Pox-viruses?
    a. RNA-enveloped
    b. DNA-non enveloped
    c. DNA-enveloped
    d. DNA-naked virion
  • 14. A disease virus in which nerves are damaged is the
    a. Yellow fever
    b. Polio
    c. Measles
    d. Xerophthalmia
  • 15. In some bacteria when division ocurrs in random plane it will produce an Arrangement called
    a. Streptococcus
    b. sarcina
    c. Diplococcus
    d. Staphylococuus
  • 16. Gram positive bacteria are usually
    a. Cocci
    b. Bacilli
    c. Stained pink
    d. Spirochete
  • 17. A viral disease in which brain of the host is affected is the
    a. Sleeping sickness
    b. Rabies
    c. Pellagra
    d. Typhoid
  • 18. Mumps and measles viruses belong to group paramyxo-viruses which are the
    a. RNA enveloped viruses
    b. DNA naked viruses
    c. RNA non-enveloped
    d. DNA enveloped viruses
  • 19. There are about known species of bacteria that causes the diseases in man
    a. 250
    b. 150
    c. 200
    d. 300
  • 20. Morphologically the tobacco mosaic virus is the
    a. Round shape
    b. Tadpole like
    c. Cubical shape
    d. Rod shape
  • 21. The flavour,all of the following is due to bacterial activity, except that of
    a. Butter milk
    b. Yogurt
    c.Ice crem
    d. Cheese
  • 22. A scientist who established principles of immunity in “Anthrax &Rbies” was the
    a. Leeuwenhoek
  • 23. The poison, produced by bacteria during infection in host is called
    a. Toxins
    c. Toxoids
  • 24. All of the following are antibiotics, except that of
    a. Penicillin
    b. Streptomycin
    c. Riboflavin
    d. Terramycin
  • 25. Bacteria ranges in size, whereas, the staphylococcus&streptococcus are in diameter
    a. 0.75 to 1.25 m
    b. 1.1 to 1.50 m
    c. 2.0 to 6.0 m
    d. 0.75 to 1.75 m
  • 26. Which one is true for periplasmic space ,in different groups of bacteria
    a. Present in all gram -negative bacteria
    b. Present in all gram positive bacteraia
    c. Present in few gram negative bacteria
    d. Present in all gram positive&few gram negative bacteria
  • 27. The amount of lipid in outer noundry of gtam positive bacteria is about
    a. 1-4 %
    b. 11-12%
    d. 20-60%
  • 28, Which one of the following antibiotics &related compounds cause permanent discoloration of teeth in young children
    a. Tetracyclin
    b. Terramycin
    c. Streptomycin
    d. Penicillin
  • 29, Antibiotics are synthesized by certain organisms such as
    a. Penicillium
    b. Actinomycetes
    c. Both a%b
    d. Oscilletoria
  • 30. Ecological role of fungi as decomposers is parallled only by
    a. Virus
    b. Bacteria
    c. Detrius
  • 31. Are very good bio-indicator of air quality as they are very sensitive to pollution
    a. Bacteria
    b. Mycorrhizae
    c. Lichens
    d. Water blooms
  • 32. Induction is a process in which a viral DNA
    a. Enters into bacterial cell and attached with bacterial DNA
    b.Detached from bacterial DNA
    c. Destroy the bacterial DNA
    d. Multiply with bacterial DNA
  • 1. The idea of inheritance of acquired character was proposed by;
    a. Linnaeus
    b. Lamarck
    c. Darwin
    d. Wallace
  • 2. From South America Darwin collected number of types of Finches;
    a. 20
    b. 11
  • c. 15
    d. 13
  • 3. Which one of the following mammals live only in America?
    a. Armadillos
    b. Elephant
    c. Opossum
    d. Echidna
    4. Which one of the following Island is present near the coastline of South America?
    a. Cape verd
    b. Finland
    c. Galapagos
    d. Iceland
  • 5. The oldest known fossils are of;
    a. Pisces
    b. Prokaryotes
    c. Protozoans
  • d. Algae
  • 6. Archaeobacteria can tolerate temperature up to;
    a. 100o C
    b. 150 oC
    c. 110 oC
    d. 120 oC
  • 7. Most fossils are found in;
    a. Sedimentary rocks
    b. Ingeous rock
    c. Black soil
    d. Lava flowa
  • 8. Charles Darwin’s book, On the origin of species by Means of Natural Selection, was first published in;
    a. 1779
    b. 1831
    c. 1859
    d. 1959
  • 9. The primary mission of the “voyage of H.M.S.beagle” (1831 — 1836) was to;
    a. Carry arms to the new world
    b. Chart the S.American coastline
    c. Find out how many species there were in the world
    d. Disprove Lamarck’s theory of inheritance
    10. The wing of bird and the forelegs of a horse are;
    a. Vestigial structures
    b. Analogous structures
    c. Phylogenetic structures
    d. Homologous structures
  • 11. The struggle for existence is a consequence of;
    a. Each organism leaving more offspring than needed to replace it self
    b. The inevitable difficulty of coping with climatic conditions
    c. Territories and dominance hierarchies
    d. Innate competitive tendencies
  • 12. The idea of common descent was first suggested to Darwin by his observations on;
    a. Comparative embryology
    b. Blood groups of birds
    c. Geographical distribution of species
    d. Human pedigrees
  • 13. Fossil record shows that the earliest known vertebrate fossils were of;
    a. Mammals
    b. Fishes
    c. Amphibians
    d. Reptiles
  • 14. The structures which have common origin but different function is;
    a. Vestigial structure
    b. Analogous structure
    c. Adaptive structure
    d. Homologous structure
  • 15. In terrestrial vertebrates, the gills are modified to form;
    a. Lungs
    b. Eustachian tube
    c. Ear muscles
    d. Larynx
  • 16. A respiratory protein found in all aerobic species is the;
    a. Cytochromes-c
    b. Cytochromes-b
    c. Cytochromes-a
    d. Cytochromes-a3
  • 17. which one of the following cannot change allelic frequency?
    a. Migration
    b. Genetic drift
    c. Random mating
    d. Selectiion
  • 18. The wings of a bird and the wings of an insect are;
    a. Analogous structures
    b. Phylogenetic structures
    c. Homologous structures
    d. Vestigial structures
  • 19. The best test of the relatedness of two species is in the similarity of their;
    a. Anatomy
    b. Courtship behaviour
    c. Development
    d. DNA & Protein
  • 20. The unit of evolution is now known to be the;
    a. Individual
    b. Population
    c. Family
    d. Species
  • 21. The total collection of genes, at any one time, in a unit of evolution is called the;
    a. Genotype
    b. Phenotype
    c. Gene pool
    d. Multiple-allelic group
  • 22. A potential danger to a population that has been greatly reduced in number is the;
    a. Loss of genetic variability
    b. Tendency towards assertive mating
    c. Reduced gene flow
    d. Hardy-Weinberg disequlibrium
  • 23. The human blood groups — A, B, AB, and O — are an example of a;
    a. Dimorphism
    b. Mutation
    c. Gradeint of diploidy
    d. Allelomorphism
  • 24. All alleles originate from;
    a. Crossing over
    b. Mutations
    c. Gene flow
    d. Non-disjunction
  • 25. A beneficial allele increases more rapidly in frequency, if it is;
    a. Dominant
    b. Recessive
    c. Recently mutated
    d. Rare
  • 26. Biologist who study the sequence of organisms in the fossil record are;
    a. Taxonomists
    b. Phycologists
    c. Paleobiologists
    d. Mycologists
  • 27. The richest source of fossils is;
    a. Igneous rock
    b. Granite
    c. Basalt
    d. Sedimentary rock
  • 28. How many possible phenotypes are there for the “ABO” blood groups?
    a. 4
    b. 6
    c. 8
    d. 16
  • 29. The genotypic expression seen in a person of blood group “AB” is called;
    a. Dominant-recessive
    b. Incomplete dominance
    c. Co-dominance
    d. Over-dominance
  • 30. The pelvis and the leg bones of a snake are;
    a. Homologous structures
    b. Vestigial structures
    c. Adaptive structures
    d. Analogous structures
  • 31. A child with blood-group genotype IA / IB is born of a woman with genotype IB / IB , the father could not be a man of genotype;
    a. IA / IB
    b. IA / IA
    c. IB / IB
    d. IA / i
  • 32. The locus of gene that controls the “AOB” blood type is present on chromosome number;
    a. 11
    b. 21
    c. 7
    d. 9
  • 33. The pattern of sex determination found in protenor hug is;
    a. XO — XX
    b. WZ — ZZ
    c. Honey bee method
    d. XY — XX
  • 34. In monochromacy which types of light receiving cone cells are absent?
    a. Blue — Green
    b. Red — Blue
    c. Red — Green
    d. Red — Yellow
  • 35. Which one is not correct for Drosophila melanogaster?
    a. XXY — is fertile female
    b. XO — fertile male
    c. XX — is female
    d. XY — male
  • 36. Which one is not correct for recessive sex-linked inheritance?
    a. Gene for eye colour is present on “X” sex chromosomes
    b. Y — chromosome is inert
    c. Female can be homozygous or heterozygous
    d. Sex – linked traits are more common in females as compared to males
  • 37. The genes for blue Opsin protein are present on autosomal chromosomes number;
    a. 07
    b. 11
    c. 09
    d. 21
  • 38. A woman receives her ” X ” chromosomes from;
    a. Her mother only
    b. Both her mother & her father
    c. Her father only
    d. Extra-nuclear DNA in her mother’s egg
  • 39. When a mutation is limited to the substitution of one nucleotide pair for another, it is called a;
    a. Point mutation
    b. Transiocation
    c. Base inversion
    d. Sugar-phosphate deletion
  • 40. The creation of mutations is called;
    a. Evolution
    b. Radiation
    c. Mutagenesis
    d. Saltatory changes
  • 41. The father of a girl is hemophilic but mother is normal.she may be;
    a. hemophilic
    b. Carrier
    c. Normal
    d. None of these
  • 42. Genes not located within the nucleus are almost always located in the;
    a. Cytosol
    b. Cell membrane
    c. Cytoskeleton
    d. Organelles
  • key
  • 1. which of the following plants is rich in atropine drug
    a. datura
    b. red pepper
    c. petunia
    d. nicotiana tobacum
  • 2. how many carbon atoms are there in a molecule of Ribulose biphospahte?
    a. three
    b. four
  • c. five
    d. six
  • 3. which one of the following is an ornamental plant?
    a. physalis
    b. melangena
    c. atropa
    d. petunia
    4. plant donot store carbohydrates as glucose because it is
    a. attracts insect herbivores
    b. dissolves in water thereby altering the osmotic balance
    c. is an unstable molecule
    d. would replace ribose in DNA replication
    5. which of the following organisms are involed in the spreading of cholera and hepatitis?
    a. house fly
    b. mosquito
    c. tse tse
    d. locust
    6. which one is not true for grade radiate?
    a. radially symmetry
    b. diploblastic
    c. coelomate
  • d. body with single opening
    7. which one of the following round worm is cosmopolitan?
    a. hook worm
    b. pin worm
    c. thread worm
    d. fillaria
    8. taenia is an endoparasite of human cattle and pig that completes its life cycle in two hosts the intermediate host is the
    a. snail
    b.sheep & man
    c. sheep
    d. pig & cattle
  • 9. which one of the following groups of animals are acoclomste?
    a. nematode
    b. flat worms
    c. cnidarians
    d. aschelminthes
    10. the genus rabditis contains “enterobius vermicularis” which is commonly known as
    a. pin worm
    b. thread worm
    c. hook worm
    d. round worm
    11. coelom is cavity present b/w body wall & alimentry canal and is lined by
    a. ectoderm
    b. endoderm
    c. mesoderm
    d. choanoderm
    12. proglottids are related to which of the fpllowing animals?
    a. fasiola
    b. schistosoma
    c. dugesia
    d. taenia
    13. protandrous mode of sexual is found in
    a. aurelia
    b. sponges
    c. hydra
    d. obelia
    14. n which of the following flat worms the digestive system is absent?
    a. tape worms
    b. liver fluke
    c. hydra
    d. blood fluke
    15. the name cnidaria has been given to this group of animals due to the presence of special cells called
    a. nematocysts
    b. cnidocytes
    c. pinachocytes
    d. choanocytes
    16. in which group of animal phyla alternation of generation is present
    a. coelenterate
    b. nematodes
    c. aschelminthes
    d. parazoa
    17. pseudocoelom of round worms consists of a number of vacuolated cells filled with a protein rich fluid that devolpes high
    a. osmotic pressure
    b. partial pressure
    c. hydrostatic pressure
    d. diffusion pressure
    18. many colonial coelenterates such as “Corals” produce a hard exoskeleton composed of
    a. sodium carbonate
    b. calcium carbonate
    c. calcium phosphate
    d. silicon dioxide
    19. in flat worms the excretory system consists of branching tubes ending in bulb like cells called
    a. glomerulus
    b. nephrostome
    c. flame cells
    d. nephridia
    20. in multicellular organisms the integumentary and nervous system develop from
    a. mesoderm
    b. archenteron
    c. endoderm
    d. ectoderm
    21. in sponges the inner body layer is made of special flagellated collar cells called
    a. pinachocytes
    b. choanocytes
    c. gelatinous mesenchyma
    d. amoeboid cells
    22. acyclostoma dueodenela a parasite of human small intestine is commonly known as
    a. hook worm
    b. pin worm
    c. thread worm
    d. guinae worm
    23. which one of the following parasitic flat worm lives in the bile duct of its host
    a. taenia worm
    b. dugesia
    c. fasiola hepatica
    d. tape worm
    24. in asymmetrical parazoa the skeleton is in the form of variously shaped needle like structure called
    a. calcareous shell
    b. spicules
    c. siliceous shell
    d. keratinized shell
    25. in hydra alternation of generation is absent and it exist only in
    a. medusae form
    b. conozoid form
    c. gastrozoid form
    d. polyps form
    26. the stony mass of living coelenterate is called
    a. corals
    b. coral leef
    c. polyps
    d. medrepora
    27. the bark which of the following plants are used in tanning industry
    a. bauhinia verigata
    b. tamarindus indica
    c. cassia senna
    d. both a & b
  • 1. i\In ireland people are completely dependent on
    a. potatoes
    c. tobacco
    d. red pepper
  • 2. Capsium anum is the scientific name of
    a. datura
    b. tobacco
    c.red pepper
    d. black pepper
  • 3. which one of the following is the favourite home garden vegetable that was once believed to be poisoned
    a. physalis
    b. lipersicum esculentum
    c. soalanum meelangena
    d, atropa belladona
  • 4. photosynthetic autotrophs get their energy from
    a. heat
    b. inorganic molecules
  • c. organic molecules
    d. light
  • 5. in 1930 van neil hypothesised that oxygen atoms in the oxygen gas released by plants come from
    a.carbon dioxide
    b. water
    c. glucose
    d. chlorophyll
  • 6. in plant cell .the dark reactions of photosyntheses takes place in
    a. stroma
    b. thylakoids
    d. lamellae
  • 7. which of the following colurs of light work best for photosynthesis
    a. green&blue
    b. red%green
    c. blue&red
    d. violet&oraange
  • 8. a description of wavelength absorbed by a pigment is called its
    a. action apectrum
    b. anteena cells
    c. reaction center
    d. absorption spectrum
  • 9. production of NADPH in a chloroplast takes place during
    a. dark reaction
    b. non-cyclic photophosphyrlation
    c. cyclic photophosphyrlation
    d. chemiosis
  • 10. which of thr following plant leaves are used for curing of ring worm skin disease
    a. cassia alata
    b. cassia fistula
    c. bauhinia vegeteria
    dd. tamarindus indica
  • 11. which one of the following process releases a carbon dioxide molecule
    a. glycolysis
    b. lactic acid fermentation
    c. alcoholic fermentation
    d. hydrolysis of glycoen
  • 12. when yeast is poducing wine, which of the following is not formed
    a. pyruvic acid
    b. acetyl co enzyme-A
    c. ethanol
    d. carbon dioxide
  • 13. in the conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl co eenzyme -A, pyruvic acid is
    a. oxidised
    b. isomerized
    c. broken into one carbon fragment
    d. reduced
  • 14. how many carbon atomsare in an oxolacetate molecule, ehich joins with an acetyl group during step -1 in krebs cycle
    a. 2
  • 15. in ETC ,the final acceptor of electron is
    a. cytochrome -b
    b. cytochrome a3
    c. oxygen
    16. the atom within each cytochrome molecule that actually accepts and releases electrons is
    a. carbon
    b. iron
    c. zink
    d. oxygen
    17. how many carbon atoms are in citric acid molecule?
    a. four
    b. six
    c. three
    d. five
    18. in aerobic cellular respiration most of the ATP is synthesized during
    a. electron transport chain
    b. glycolysis
    c. citric acid cycle
    d. oxidation of pyruvate
    19. in eukaryotic cell the krebs citric acid cycle and terminal electron transport take place
    a. with in the nucleus
    b. on rough ER
    c. in the cytoplasm
    d. with in the mitochondria
    20. the inner membrane of mitochondria is very selective about what it normally allows to leave the organelle.one molecule that regularly passes out of a mitochondria is
    a. citric acid
    b. ATP
    c. pyruvic acid
    d. glucose
    21. the function of the mitochondrial cristac is to
    a. prevent escape O2 gas
    b. store co-enzyme-A
    c. increase the surface area of the inner membrane
    d. increase the avalibility of phospholipids
    22. a source of protons for the protons for the proton gradient with in chloroplast is
    a. water
    b. chlorophyll
    c. CH2O
    d. phospholipids within thylakoids membranes
    23. the molecule in the Calvin-Benson cycle that combines with carbon dioxide is
    a. glyceraldehyde phosphate
    b. ribulose biphosphate
    c. phosphoenolpyruvate
    d. 1, 3 biphosphoglycerate
    24. how many carbon atoms are there in a molecule of glyceraldehyde phosphate
    a. four
    b. five
    c. three
    d. six
    25. the source of hydrogen atom for the synthesis of glucose is
    a. H2O
    b. FADH2
    c. n(CH2O)
    d. NADPH
    26. an edible fruit, the husk tomato obtained from the plant family the
    a. poaceae
    b. solanaceae
    c. ceasalpiniaceae
    d. cassia family

Biology Complete Important Mcqs For Medical Entry Test Preparation

General Knowledge , History of Pakistan Mcqs

General Knowledge , History Of Pakistan Mcqs

General Knowledge , History of Pakistan Mcqs 

Pakistan became meember of UN on

September 30, 1947 plate
August 15, 1947
August 28, 1947
September 1, 1947

There were how many members of First Constituent Assembly?

69 plate

Number of members of First Constituent Assembly was increased from 69 to

79 plate

When Quaid-e-Azam was elected as President of First Constituent Assembly?

August 11, 1947 plate
August 14, 1947
August 15, 1947
August 10, 1947

First Constituent Assembly passed the Objective Resolution on

March 12, 1949 plate
March 12, 1950
March 12, 1948
March 12, 1952

When First Constituent Assembly was dissolved?

October 24, 1954 plate
October 20, 1954
October 12, 1954
October 24, 1953

Who dissolved the First Constituent Assembly of Pakistan?

Malik Ghulam Muhammad plate
Gen. Ayub Khan
Gen. Parvez Musharraf
Gen. Zia-ul-Haq

When first consitution of pakistan was enforced?

March 23, 1956 plate
August 14, 1956
January 1, 1956
March 14, 1956

When second constitution of Pakistan was enforced?

June 8, 1962 plate
August 14, 1962
March 23, 1962
March 23, 1956

When third consitution of Pakistan was enforced?

August 14, 1973 plate
March 23, 1973
June 8, 1973
April 14, 1973

First Marshal Law (October 7, 1958 to June 8, 1962) was imposed by

Ayub Khan plate
Yahya Khan
Malik Ghulam Muhammad

Who was the first Chief Justice of Pakistan?

Ch. Abdul Rasheed plate
Qazi Esa
Liaqat Ali Khan
Khawaja Nazim-ud-

Who is first women Prime Minister of Pakistan?

Benazir Bhutto plate
Fatima Jinnah
Begum Shahnawaz
None of these

First Foreign Minister of Pakistan was

Zafarullah Khan plate
Abdul Rasheed
Malik Muhammad Ahmad
None of these

According of constitution of Pakistan, who is the head of the state?

President plate
Prime Minister
None of these

According of constitution of Pakistan, who is the head of the government?

Prime Minister plate
Chief Justice
None of these

The Lower House is

National Assembly plate
Provincial Assembly

The Upper House is

Senate plate
Provincial Assembly
National Assembly
Supreme Court

Who is the presiding head of National Assembly?

Speaker plate
Deputy Speaker

Who is presiding head of Senate?

Chairman plate
Prime Minister


Who is constitutional chief of province?

Governor plate
Chief Minister
Provincial Chief Justice
None of these

Who is administrative chief of province?

Chief Minister plate
Provincial Chief Justice
Inspector General of Police

When Gen. Musharraf introduced Local Government System?

August 14, 2000 plate
August 14, 1999
August 14, 2001
August 14, 2002

In Pakistan, federal legislative or parliament is

Bicameral plate
None of these

According to constitution, president is entitled to hold his office for

Five years plate
Six years
Three years
Four years

According to constitution, who will perform duties of president as acting president in case the office of president is vacant at that time?

Chairman Senate plate
Speaker National Assembly
Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Chief of Army Staff

President shall be a muslim and not less than

45 years of age plate
55 years of age
40 years of age
30 years of age

President shall take oath before

Chief Justice of Pakistan plate
Prime Minister of Pakistan
Chief of Army Staff
None of these

Name the first president of Pakistan.

Sikandar Mirza plate
Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din
Liaqat Ali Khan

Who has powers to appoint the heads of Army, Naval and Air Staffs?

President plate
Prime Minister
Chief Justice
None of these

On May 29, 1988, President Zia dissolved the National Assembly under article

58 2(b) plate
58 2(a)
58 2(c)
58 2(d)

Prime Minister of Pakistan is entitled to hold his/her office for a term of

Five Years plate
Six Year
Four Years
Three Years

Who is called the real ruler of Pakistan?

Prime Minister plate
Chief of Army Staff
Chief Jusitce of Pakistan

Who heads the Cabinet?

Prime Minister plate
Chairman Senate
Speaker National Assembly

Prime Minister is liable to furnish his/her resign to

President plate
Speaker of National Assembly
Chief Justice of Pakistan
Chairman Senate

When first women Prime Minister of Pakistan Benazir Bhutto was elected?

December 2, 1988 plate
May 2, 1988
June 22, 1988
None of these

There are how many members of Senate?

104 plate

Who acts as Speaker when the office of Speaker is vacant?

Deputy Speaker plate
Deputy Chairman
Chairman Senate
Chief Justice

What is minimum age of a member of National Assembly?

25 years plate
24 years
22 years
30 years

Members of Senate are elected for a term of

6 years plate
5 years
3 years
4 years

Minimum age of member of Senate must be

30 years plate
25 years
22 years
24 years

Chairman and Deputy Chairman are entitled to hold their office for a term of

3 years plate
5 years
6 years
4 years

Governor of province is appointed by

President plate
Prime Minister
Chief Justice
None of these

Governor of province tekes oath before

Cheif Justice of High Court plate
Cheif Justice of Supreme Court
Prime Minister

Minimum age of a Governor must be

35 years plate
30 years
25 years
None of these

Chief Minister of Province takes oath before

Governor plate
Chief Justice of High Court
Prime Minister

The executive body of a province is called cabinet which is headed by

Chief Minister plate
Chief Justice of High Court
None of these

Minimum age of a member of Provincial Assembly must be

25 years plate
22 years
30 years
35 years

Who appoints the Chief Justice of Pakistan?

President plate
Prime Minister
Speaker of National Assembly
Chairman Senate

Who takes oath from Chief Election Commissioner?

Chief Justice of Supreme Court plate
Chief Justice of High Court
Prime Minister

General Knowledge , History Of Pakistan Mcqs

General Knowledge Important Sports Mcqs

General Knowledge Important Sports Mcqs

General Knowledge Important Sports Mcqs 

Who won the French Open women title 2013?

Serena Williams plate
Maria Sharapova
Venus Williams
Victoria Zara

Who won the French Open men title 2013?

Rafael Nadal plate
Andy Murray
Roger Federar
Novak Djokovic

Who hit the fastest ever century in the history of cricket by reaching 100 in merely 30 balls during Royal Challengers . Bangalore-Pune Warriors IPL match on 23 April 2013.

Chris Gayle plate
Brendon McCullum
Shahid Afridi
Shane Watson

Who defeated Rafeal Nadal to win the Monte-Carlo Rolex Masters Tournament 2013?

Novak Djokovic plate
David Ferrer
David Beckham
Andy Murray

Who defeated David Ferrer to win the ATP Miami Masters 2013?

Andy Murray plate
Rafael Nadal
David Beckham
Novak Djokovic

Who won men Indian Wells BNP Paribas Open 2013 Titles?

Rafael Nadal plate
David Beckham
Novak Djokovic
Andy Murray

Who won women Indian Wells BNP Paribas Open 2013 Titles?

Maria Sharapova plate
Venus Williams
Serena Williams
Victoria Martin

Who became the richest Footballer of the World in 2013?

David Beckham plate
Lionel Messi.
Cristiano Ronaldo
None of these

Who Defeated David Ferrer to Win ATP Mexican Open 2013 Tennis Tournament?

Rafael Nadal plate
Novak Djokovic
David Beckham
Andy Murray

Who won the ATP Dubai Open Tennis title 2013?

Novak Djokovic plate
Rafael Nadal
David Beckham
Andy Murray

Who is the winner of IPL6?

Mumbai plate

Who was the highest run scorer in IPL6?

Michal Hussy plate
A Rahane
Chris Gayle
Shane Watson

Who made the highest runs in any IPL6 match?

Gautam Gambhir plate
A Rahane
Chris Gayle
Shane Watson

Name the Pakistanis tennis star who wins Miami Doubles Championship 2013 with his Dutch partner Julien in the United States?

Aisam-ul-Haq plate
Jahngeer Khan
None of these

Who won the Australian Open women title 2013?

Victoria Azarenka plate
Venus Williams
Serena Williams
Victoria Zara


Who won the Australian Open men title 2013?

Novak Djokovic plate
Andy Murray
Roaer Federar
Rafael Nadal

The 2013 Indian Premier League spot fixing case arose when the Delhi Police arrested cricketers on the charges of spot-fixing. What was the name of Cricketers?

All of these plate
Ajit Chandila
c) Ankeet Chavan

Sreesanth, Ajit Chandila and Ankeet Chavan represented which team in the 2013 Indian Premier League?

Rajasthan Royal plate
Mumbai Indians
Deccan Chargers
Kolkata Knight Riders

International Cricket Council withdrew which Pakistani Umpire from the Champions Trophy in the wake of reports that the Mumbai Police are conducting an investigated his activities in IPL spot fixing s

Asad Rauf plate
Aleem Dar
Munir A Khan
None of these

In the final match of Indian Premier League 2013, Rohit Sharma led Mumbai Indians defeated Chennai Super Kings by 23 runs to lift the title for the very first time at Eden Gardens on

26th May 2013 plate
24th May 2013
25th May 2013
29th May 2013


Where did Twenty20 Cricket first originate?

England plate
New Zealand
South Africa

The first Twenty20 Cricket Cup was won by:

India plate
West Indies

The second Twenty20 Cricket Cup was won by

Pakistan plate
West Indies

The third Twenty20 Cricket Cup was won by:

England plate
West Indies

The fourth Twenty20 Cricket Cup was won by

West Indies plate

The first Cricket World Cup was played in 1975, won by

West Indies plate

The ninth Cricket World Cup was played in 2007, won by

Australia plate
Sri Lanka
West Indies

The tenth Cricket World Cup was played in 2011, won by

India plate
West Indies

how many wickets were taken by Wasim Akram in One day matches?

502 plate

What is the height of the wickets used in the game of cricket?

28 inches 71.10 cm) plate
26 inches (66.0 cm)
27 inches (68.6 cm)
29 inches (73.7 cm)

In which year the 1st Cricket World Cup was played?

1975 plate

What is the record of second highest team score second in limited over matches made by South Africa

438 plate

Test Career highest individual score record 400 runs is held by

Brain Lara plate
ST Jaysuria
D G Bradman
M. Hayden

Who made the fastest test century just in 56 balls

Richards plate
Chender Pual
Shahid Afridi

Which of the following teams hold the highest score of 443 while playing made against Netherlands?

Sir Lanka plate
South Africa
New Zealand

Name the bowler who got more than seven hundred wickets in Test Cricket

Both Murlitharan and Shane Warne plate
M. Murlitharan
Wasim Akram
Shane Warne

Which hockey player is known as the flying horse?

Samiullah plate
Tanvir Dar
Hashim Khan
Sohail Abbas

Which of the following World Cup Hockey was won by Pakistan?

1994 plate
d 1998

How many players does a hockey team have?

11 plate

For how many times did Pakistan win the World Hockey Cup?


For how many times did Pakistan win Champions Trophy (Hockey)?


In which Olympics Pakistan did not participate?

1980 plate

In which city Olympics 2000 were held?

Sydney plate
Athens Greece
Paris France
Moscow Russia

The first Games of the modern era were held in which city?

Athens plate

When were the first Ancient (recorde Olympic Games held?

776 BC plate
176 BC
676 BC
555 BC

Which of the following sports was added to the 1904 Games?

Boxing plate

In which year were the very first modern Olympic Games held, and where?

1896, Athens plate
1900, Paris
1892, Athens
1904, St Louis

In which year was the official Olympic Flag first used at the modern Olympic Games?

1920 plate

In which year was the modern Marathon standardized to a length of 42,195 metres?

1924 plate

Where is the headquarters of the International Olympic Committee, the IOC?

Lausanne plate
Los Angeles


General Knowledge Important Sports Mcqs