Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams

Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams

Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams

(1) The greatest requirement for economic development is:
(a) To sacrifice present enjoyment for tomorrow’s benefit.
(b) Increase in National income.
(c) Invention and innovation in all productive sectors
(d) Mechanization of agriculture
(2) Per Capita output would probably rise but output per worker would fall if;
(a) Capital deepening occurred rapidly.
(b) Labour force participation rate of the population rose
(c) Technical education of the work
(d) Involuntary saving was increased
(3) Most of underdeveloped countries are agricultural with low income and needs:
(a) Increase in income of the people depends upon agriculture output.
(b) Land can be owned collectively.
(c) Land can be owned by large capitalist farmers.
(d) Land can be owned by labourers who fill it.
(4) Voluntary saving will most likely increase if:
(a) Tax rates are increased
(b) Interest rate rise
(c) Distribution of income becomes more unequal
(d) The rate of inflation increase
(5) Economic growth:
(a) Is synonymous with economic development
(b) Refers to qualitative change experienced by an economic system
(c) When an economic system acquires greater productive capacity.
(d) Always result in increased real per capita output
(6) Capital deepening:
(a) Is an increase in the ration of labour to capital
(b) Necessarily increases real per capita output
(c) Is less likely to be effective in fostering growth in rich countries than in poor countries
(d) Can occur when saving rates are zero
(7) Interest of the developed world in the development of under developed economies on:
(a) General political freedom and promotion of free societies
(b) If world is not free their freedom would be in danger
(c) They want to stop and check tyranny and aggression
(d) Developed countries need customers for their surplus production.
(8) GNP at factor cost may be best defined as:
(a) The total of goods and services produced within an economy over a given time period.
(b) The total of expenditure of consumers on domestically produced goods and services.
(c) All incomes received by residents in a country in return for factor services provided domestically and abroad.
(d) The value of total output produced domestically plus net property income from abroad minus capital consumption
(9) Which one of the following is a transfer payment in National income accounting?
(a) Educational scholarship
(b) Salaries of employees
(c) Payments for text books
(d) Payment for examination fee
(10) Which is the basic concept which underlies accelerator theory of investment?
(a) Investment depends on the level of savings
(b) Investment is inversely related to the rate of interest
(c) Investment is determined by the volume of Commercial Bank Lending
(d) Investment rises when there is an increase in the rate of growth of demand in the economy
(11) Which one of the following would cause a fall in the level of aggregate demand in the economy?
(a) A decrease in the level of imports
(b) A fall in the propensity to save
(c) A decrease in government expenditure
(d) A decrease in the level of income tax
(12) Capital formation remained very low in Pakistan due to:
(a) Low saving rate
(b) Savings are not fully invested
(c) Money and capital market are not suitable
(d) Due to high rate of inflation purchasing power is very low
(13) Efficient allocation of resources in an economy occurs whenever:
(a) Prices is equated to Marginal social cost in some units
(b) Income and wealth are distributed in a fair way
(c) There is full employment of resources
(d) The existing resource allocation cannot be changed without making it worse off.
(14) When a worker earns more than the just sufficient to keep him in his job, the excess income is called:
(a) An opportunity cost
(b) An economic rent
(c) Transfer earnings
(d) Surplus value
(15) There are 5 workers in a field and each one is paid at the rate of Rs. 200 per day. Later on raising wage rate by Rs. 50 per day to attract one more worker. If other costs remain constant, marginal input cost of employing the additional worker is:
(a) Rs. 400
(b) Rs. 45
(c) Rs. 700
(d) Rs. 300
(16) If state wishes to stimulate consumption, which one of the following measures be the most effective?
(a) Increase in aid to agriculture and industry
(b) An increase in old age pension
(c) A decrease in higher rates of income tax
(d) A decrease in personal tax allowances
(17) The incidence of tax refers to:
(a) Who economically bear the burden of the tax
(b) The canons of taxation
(c) Type of tax, direct or indirect tax
(d) Whether the tax is continuously or periodically levied.
(18) During the inflationary period, when income tax revenue rises faster than National income, this illustrates:
(a) The situation of unemployment trap.
(b) The poverty trap
(c) Fiscal boost
(d) Fiscal drag
(19) A balance of payment surplus may cause:
(a) Employment and the money supply to rise.
(b) The money supplies to fall
(c) Employment to rise and the money supply to fall
(d) Employment and the money supply to fall.
(20) Green revolution refers to:
(a) Introduction of modern technology
(b) Reform in land tenure system
(c) Introduction of agro-based industry
(d) Boosting exports of agricultural products
__________________

Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams

Computer Science Mcqs for Lecturer and Subject Specialist PSC Exam

Computer Science Mcqs for Lecturer and Subject Specialist PSC Exam
Bit means Binary Digit
• 1 byte = 8 bits
• 1 mega byte = 1048576 bytes
• 1 kilo byte = 1024 bytes
• A combination of 16 bits are called word.
• A terabyte = 1 trillion bytes
• Our PC belongs to 4th generation
• Fred Cohen coined the word computer virus
• First computer virus was created in 1970 at Bell laboratories
• WORM means Write Once Read Many
• Power of a super computer is measured in FLOPS (Floating Point Operations per Second)
• WWW/http: (hypertext transfer protocol) was created by Tim Burner Lee in 1992
• Intel means Integrated Electronics
• 1 worksheet contains 256 columns
• G.W.Basic G.W stands for Gate Way
• Super Computer was created by J.H.Van Tassel
• CORBA is Common Object Request Broker Architecture
• URL is Uniform or Universal Resource Locator
• Intel invented RAM chip
• Information stored on disk as series of bumps on its shiny side.
• DVDs hold more information than CDs. They use smaller bumps and have two reflective layers
• Recordable CDs do not have bumps. There are patches of color on disk to change the reflected laser light
• In 1951 Univac – 1, the world’s first commercial computer was designed by John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert. They built ENIAC, the first electronic computer in 1946
• In 1968 mainframe was built.
• In 1976 first supercomputer the Cray-1 was developed
• In 1981 IBM produce the IBM PC.
• In 1998 IBM made quantum computer
• Super computers uses parallel processing
• In 1974, computer games were introduced.
• PROM is the abbreviation of programmable read only memory

• What was the world’s first high level programming language 1957: IBM FORTRAN
• A JPEG is a picture file format – what does JPEG stand for: Joint Photographic Experts Group
• During World War II, IBM built the computers the Nazis used to manage their death/concentration camps
• Registers are temporary storage areas within the CPU.
• First apple computer was built in garage.
• The language of small talk is object oriented.
• Shell is an operating environment.
• Virtual memory is also known as virtual page.
• NOS refer to operating systems for a network.
• In EBCDIC each character is denoted by 8 bits.
• Diodes are used in analog computer circuits as limiter.
• Wetware stands for any organic intelligence.
• GIGO stands for garbage in garbage out.
• Application of flip-flap are counters, shift register and transfer register.
• Bootstrap is associated with computer.
• FORTRAN stands for formula translator.
• A group of character that is termed as a single entity is called word.
• Clip art is a computer prepared art.
• Mark sensing is another term for OMR.
• Authorization to make multiple software copies is called site licensing.
• Antivirus is also known as vaccines.
• Free software is also known as public domain software.
• In computer DFD stands for Data Flow Diagram.
• Cyber Space is called to Virtual world of the computer.
• What does the sun in SUN Microsystems stand for Stanford University Network
• What does Intel stand for- Integrated Electronics
• All PCs have a BIOS what does bios stand for-Basic Input Output System
• What is the common name for an integrated circuit A Chip
• In WWW terms what does i.e. mean on a domain name-Ireland
• What company introduced the first commercial minicomputer 65 DEC
• Name the first web browser publicly available NCSA Mosaic
• The world’s most powerful super computer is called ASCI white.
• World Wide Web was invented in 1993 by Tim Bareness Lee.
• The B-programming language was developed by Ken Thompson.
• The 1st commercially produced and sold computer (1951) was UNIVAC.
• The transformation from heavy computers to PCs was made possible using microprocessors.
• The first microprocessor was developed in 1971 by Intel.
• A pentium 4 (P-4) employs roughly 40 million transistors.
• Mark-1, Apple-1, and collossus were initial desktop computers.
• Binary digits are briefed as bit.
• A collection of bits is called byte.
• The first home computer (1977), which was sold in millions of units was Apple II.
• ‘PARAM’ is a supercomputer.
• Father of the Computer.. Charles Babbage
• What does CMOS stand for in a computer- Complementary metal Oxide semi-conductor

Lecturer and Subject Specialist Political Science Mcqs

Lecturer And Subject Specialist Political Science Mcqs

(1) Who is called the “Intellectual Father of French Revolution? J.J Rousseau
(2) GENERAL WILL as concept was introduced by:Rousseau
(3) Karl Marx is known for his theory of :Meterialistic Interpretation of history
(4) “Man by nature is a social and political animal” is the cornerstone of the
philosophy of:Aristotle
(5) The author of the Book The Laws was:Plato
(6) The center of Learning to the Greeks was the city state of :Athens
(7) which of the thinkers is a social contractualist?Hobbes
(8) “Principle of Utility” as a formula was the idea of :Jeremy Bentham
(9) Modern Political thought begins withMachiavelli
(10) Plato was a:Idealist
(11) “Two treatises on civil Government” constitute the basic source
of Political thought of :Locke
(12) Marx and Engels produced the famous book’ Common Manifesto’ In:1848
(13) “ Siyasatnama” and ‘Majma ul Wasaya’ are the two books on
administration attributed to:Nizam ul Mulk Tusi
(14) Montesquieu by birth belonged to:France
(15) Al-Ghazzali was a philosopher of :11th century
(16) Sepration of Ethics and Politics was the principle notion in the
philosophy of:Machiavelli
(17) A Bi-cameral legislature as most suited to:Federal States
(21) Ahya ul ulum is the work of:Al Ghazali
(22) He is famous for his work “Muqaddameh”:Ibn Khuldun
(23) The Bolshevik movement in Russia was led by:Lenin
(24) He is known as the major theorist of bureaucracy:Max Weber
(25) Cultural Revolution in China was launched under the leadership of:Mao dzedung
(26) Collective responsibility is a feature of:Parliamentary form
(27) Decentralization is a feature of:Federal System
(28) Dictatorship of the Proletariat is one of the concepts of:Karl Marx
(29) The general Will is the political concept of:J. J. Rousseau
(30) ‘Leviathan’ is written by:Thomas Hobbes
(31) “An essay concerning Human Understanding” is written by:John Locke
(34) “Political Science begins and ends with the state” is said by:Professor Garner
(35) Thyau’l-Ulum was the chief work of:Al Ghazali
(36) According to Aristotle which is the bad government of the rich:Oligarchy
(37) Constitutional classified as rigid and flexible in a book titled “Studies in History and Jurisprudence” was written by:Lord Bryce
(38) “Wealth of Nations” was written by”Adam Smith
(40) Which of these books represents the scheme of Plato’s Philosophy?The Republic
(41) “Muqaddamah” was the great work of:Ibn Khuldun
(43) “Theory of Divine Right of King” was presented by King James of England in century:17th
(45) A discourse on the origin of Inequality and the social contract was presented by:Rousseau
(46) Sovereignty is which one of the following bases of the state:Spiritual
(47) Law is “the body of Principles recognized and applied by the state in the administration of justice” is said by:Salmon
(48) The term Propaganda acquired derogatory sense:After World War I
(49) The word “polis” means:A city state
(50) In which century Austinian theory of Sovereignty was refuted by Pluralists?20th
(52) Who is the author of “Politics in Pakistan: The Nature and Direction of Change”?Khaild B Sayeed
(54) George H. Sabine is the author of:A history of Political Theory
(55) Plato is the author of:Republic
(57) ‘Political Science begins and ends with the state’ is said by:Professor Garner
(58) ‘The city of god’ is the work of:St. Augustine
(59) The ideas of Aristotle are more acceptable to the West than Plato’s because he propagated:Rule of law
(60) He is known as the founding father of Utilitarianism:Jeremy Bentham

Lecturer And Subject Specialist Political Science Mcqs

Computer Mcqs for Lecturer & Subject Specialist and Other PSC Exams

Computer Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist And Other PSC Exams

1. Which of the following is not a Programming language?
A. Basic
B. FORTRAN
C. LASER
D. PASCAL
E. All are programming languages
Answer is = C
2. The technical term not related to computer systems
A. Virus
B. Winchester Disk
C. Mouse
D.FIFO System
Answer is = D
3. FoxPro is
A. A medicine
B. a disease
C. a Computer Language
D. a animal
Answer is = C
4. Super Computer was invested by
A. J.H. Van Tassel
B. J.C Perrier
C. W.L Judson
D. A.J. garnering
Answer is = A
5. Which of the following terms in not associated with computers?
A. Frank land reaction
B. Data base
C. Binary
D. Windows
Answer is = A
6. The special files of DOS are
A. COM
B.EXE
C.BATCH
D. All of these
Answer is = D
7. “Binary Codes” as used in computer sciences are codes made up of witch of the following two numbers?
A.0 and 9
B.1 and 3
C.0 and 1
D.9 and 1
Answer is = C
8. Bill Gates is more well-known as
A. The CEO of apple Macintosh
B. The CEO of IBM
C. The owner of Microsoft Corporation
D. The inventor of the personal computer
Answer is = C
9. Which of the following is the unit to express the memory of a computer?
A. Compiler
B. Bus
C. Byte
D. Clone
E. CAD
Answer is = C
10. Which one of the following characteristics is absent in a computer, however sophisticated it may be?
A. High speed
B. Intelligence
C. Accuracy
D. Perfect Memory
Answer is = B

Computer Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist And Other PSC Exams

Economics Mcqs for Lecturer & Subject Specialist PSC Exams

Economics Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist PSC Exams

1. To determine the correct level of GNP, it is necessary to.
a. to add up the values of goods and services during one year.
b. add up all savings
c. to count all imports
d. to add up the value of semi finished goods
Answer is = A
2. GNP is always
a. less then NNP
b. Grater then NNP
c. Equal to NNP
d. Any of a, b, c
Answer is = B
3. The four factor payment are:
a. Money, capital, salaries and income
b. Wages, rent, interest and profits
c. Money, power, preset age, and wealth
d. Wages, interest, salaries, and income.
Answer is = B
4. We measure national income by this method
a. Expenditure method
b. income method
c. product method
d. all of the above
Answer is = D
5. Transfer payment means
a. Bank loans
b. The payment without work
c. Text payments
d. Payments made to all factors of production
Answer is = B
6. Which statement is true
a. National expenditure= National income
b. National Expenditure= National income+ National production
C. National Expenditure= National income+ National Taxes
d. National Expenditure= National income- Taxes
Answer is = A
7. If we compare GDP and GNP, then
a. GNP= GDP- net income from abroad
b. GNP= GDP+ net income from abroad
c. GNP= NNP- net income from abroad
d. GNP= NNP+ net income from abroad
Answer is = B
8. A TV set purchased from a retail store is an example of
a. Intermediate goods
b. Capital goods
c. Surplus goods
d. Final goods
Answer is = D
9. GNP is ?
a. Total sales in the economy
b. Total monetary transactions in an economy
c. The market values of all goods and services produced in an economy
d. Total spending in an economy
Answer is = C
10. GNP includes
a. A loan from bank
b.A loan from one’s parents
c. Gifts and donations
d. A broker’s commission
Answer is = D
11. Net Investment is
a. Gross Investment minus household Invesment
b. Gross Investment minus govt.
c. Gross invesment minus capital consumption allowance
d. None of the above
Answer is = C
12. Market value of all final goods and services produced in a country during a year is defination of
a. NI
b NNP
c. GNP
d. Consumption
Answer is = C
13. Consumption spending does not include
a. Household’s purchases of food
b. Household’s purchases of a career
c. Household’s payment of rent for an apartment
d. Household’s purchases of stock in any XYZ corporation
Answer is = D
14. Which of the following would in crease national income
a. Increases in taxation
b. Increase in savings
c. Increases in govt spending
d. Decreases in consumption spending
Answer is = C
15. Which of the following is a withdrawal from the circular flow income strem.
a. Investment
b. Subsidies
c. Taxation
d. consumption
Answer is = C
16. Pakistan’s saving rate is
a. 5 %
b. 14.4 %
c. 25 %
d. 35 %
Answer is = B
17. In the world population-wise Pakistan is
a. 3rd
b. 4th
c. 6th
d. 8th
Answer is = C
18. Population growth rate in Pakistan is
a. 1 %
b. 1.73 %
c. 1.9 %
d. 4 %
Answer is = B
19. According to the Economic Survey of Pakistan 2008-09 Pakistan’s per capita income is U.S. dollars
a. 320
b. 1046
c. 950
d. 1520
Answer is = B
20. Which is most likely to cause a more even distribution of income
a. An increases in indirect taxes
b. An increases in managers’ salaries
c. An increases in progressive taxation
d. An increases in an rate of inflation
Answer is = C
21. Working population is ————– percent of total population of Pakistan
a. 20 %
b. 30 %
c. 40 %
d. 50 %
Answer is = B
22. Pakistan started its first five-year plan in
a. 1947
b. 1950
c.1955
d. 1960
Answer is = C
23. Contribution of agriculture in Pakistan’s national income is
a. 20 %
b. 24 %
c. 28 %
d. 26 %
Answer is = B
24. Contribution of industrial sector in Pakistan economy is
a. 28 %
b. 18 %
c. 8 %
d. –Undetermined
Answer is = B
25. Size of Pakistan’s 8th plan was in —————rupees:
a. 700 billion
b. 1700 billion
c. 2700 billion
d. 3700 billion
Answer is = B
26. Pakistan produces—————of its oil requirements
a. 25 %
b 35 %
c. 45 %
d. 55 %
Answer is = A
27. Economic development
a. it same is as economic growth
b. Means improvement in lifestyle
c. Exists when there is equal distribution of income
d. All of the above
Answer is = B
28. Economic development is measured on the basis of
a. Increases in nominal GNP
b. Increases in real GNP
c. Increases in personal incomes
d. Increases in government revenue
Answer is = B
29. The govt. can control inflation by
a. Increasing demand for goods
b. Increasing supply of goods
c. Increasing money supply
d. Decreasing taxes
Answer is = B
30. Government of Pakistan issues currency on the basis of:
a. Availability of gold in the country
b. Availability of dollar in the country
c. Demand for money in the country
d. Tax collection
Answer is = C
31. Which property the paper money dose not possession
a. Acceptability
b. Divisibility
c. Durability
d. Portability
Answer is = C
32. Velocity of circulation of money means.
a. the number of times a unit of money changes hand’s daily
b. the number of times a unit of money changes hands monthly
c. the number of times a unit of money changes hands annually
d. the number of times a unit of money changes hands value
Answer is = C
33. When the nation’s money supply is Rs. 1200 billion and GDP
is Rs. 4800 billion, velocity of money is
a. 0.25
b. 4
c. 0.4
d. 4 billion rupees
Answer is = B
34. If quantity of money is doubled, than according to
Quantity Theory, value of money is
a. Remains constant
b. Double
c. Half
d. None of the above
Answer is = C
35. According to Keynes, demand for money is affected by
a. Income
b. Rate of interest
c. Literacy rate
d. A and B of above
Answer is = D
36. Which people of most likely to again during inflation?
a. Those living on pension
b. Those living on there saving
c. Those who are repaying borrowed money
Answer is = C
37. If quantity of money increases 100 % other things remaining constant, value of changes by
a. Increases by 100 %
b. Decreases by 100 %
C.Decreases by 200 %
d. Dose not changes
Answer is = B
38. When banks prepare their balance sheets, they show the money lent in
a. Liability
b. Assets
c. Both assets and liabilities
d. None
Answer is = B
39. The power of a bank to create credit is affected by
a. The cash reserve requirements
b. The amount of cash available
c. The number of branches of a bank
d. A and B of above
Answer is = D
40. A bank has Rs. 5 million in cash. The minimum reserve ratio is 20 %. What is maximum potential increases in total deposits?
a. 0
b. 5m
c. 10m
d. 25m
Answer is = D
41. When a commercial bank creates credit, its immediate effect is that it raises
A. The exchanges rate
B. The insert rate
C. The money supply
D. The real national income
Answer is = C
42. State Bank of Pakistan was established in
A. 1948.
B. 1950
C. 1952
D.1954
Answer is = A
43. 10-rupee note is issued by
A. National Bank
B. State Bank
C. Govt of Pakistan
D. Governor state Bank
Answer is = B
44. Which is the most widely used tool of monetary policy?
A. Clearing house
B. open market operations
C. discount rate
D. issuing of notes
Answer is = B
45. when the state bank wants to decrease money supply in the country, it
A. buys govt securities in stock market
B. sells govt. securities
C. lowers discount rate
D.B and C of above.
Answer is = B
46. Central bank’s rate of lending to commercial banks is called
A. Interest rate
B. discount rate
C. money rate
D. control rate
Answer is = B
47. When a central bank wants to increase money supply in circulation it called?
A. Purchase govt. securities
B. Lowers bank rate
C. Directs banks to advance more loans
D. A and B
Answer is = D
48. Every country establishes central bank to
A. Issue notes
B. Supervise commercial banks
C. Give loans to businessmen
D. A and B
Answer is = D
49. Which is a monetary measure to increase employment?
A. Incerease in Govt . expenditure
B. Reduce Govt. expenditure
C. Increase in Interest rate
D. Reducing interest rate
Answer is = D
50. Treasury bill is used for
A. Getting short term loans
B. Getting long term loans
C. Treasury bill is not credit instrument
D. Treasury bill is a Govt. tax bill
Answer is = A

Economics Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist PSC Exams

Biology Mcqs for Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

Biology Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

1. What is the main purpose of white blood corpuscles?
A. To carry nutrients
B. To combat infection
C. To carry oxygen
D. To give strength
Answer is = B
2. Total volume of blood in a normal human being is
A. 5 – 6 liters
B. 3 – 4 liters
C. 8 – 10 liters
D. 10 – 12 liters
Answer is = A
3. Red blood corpuscles are formed in the
A. Liver
B. Bone marrow
C. Kidneys
D. Heart
Answer is = B
4. Blood does not coagulate inside the body to the presence of
A. Fi brin
B. Heparin
C. Haemoglobin
D. Plasma
Answer is = B
5. Lungs are situated in the
A. Abdominal cavity
B. Buccal cavity
C. Pericardinal cavity
D. Thoracic cavity
Answer is = D
6. How many numbers of bones in the human body of an adult ?
A. 210
B. 206
C. 250
D. 450
Answer is = B
7. The pancreas secretes
A. Insulin
B. Vatiman A
C. Bile juice
D. None
Answer is = A
8. The seat of memory in the human brain is located in the
A. Medulla oblongata
B. Cerebrum
C. Cortex
D. Cerebellum
Answer is = C
9. Tibia is a bone found in the
A. Arm
B. Skull
C. Leg
D. Face
Answer is = C
10. The main function of the kidney is
A. To control blood pressure
B. To control body temperature
C. To remove waste products from the body
D. To help in digestion of food
Answer is = C
11. The strongest muscle in the human body is found in
A. hands
B. neck
C. buttocks
D. legs
Answer is = C
12. What is gene?
A. Sleep inducing drug
B. Unit of heredity
C. A type of body cell
D. A kind of vitamin
Answer is = B
13. The function of haemoglobin is
A. To transport oxygen
B. Destruction of bacteria
C. Prevention of anaemia
D. Utilization of energy
Answer is = A
14. A vegetable containing sulphur is
A. Potato
B. Cabbage
C. Brinjal
D. Pumpkin
Answer is = B
15. Enzymes help in
A. Respiration
B. Digestion of food
C. Immune system
D. Reproduction
Answer is = B
16. Ptyalin is an enzyme produced in the
A. Salivary glands
B. Pituitary gland
C. Thyroid glands
D. Pancreas
Answer is = A
17. Heightened emotion is caused by
A. Pituitary gland
B. Thyroid glands
C. Adrenal glands
D. Salivary glands
Answer is = C
18. The shortest bone in the human body is
A. Vertebrae
B. Stapes
C. Phalages
D. Metacarpals
Answer is = B
19. A balanced diet contains
A. Animals protein
B. Macro and micro nutrients
C. Food nutrients for growth and maintenance
D. Butter and ghee
Answer is = C
20. Wisdom teeth normally grow between the age of
A. 34-40
B. 17-30
C. 45-55
D. 10-17
Answer is = A
21. ‘Dossier’ means
A. the do of medicine
B. the actual things
C. relevant paper
D. unarranged papers
Answer is = C
22. Lack of—————causes diabetes
A. Sugar
B. Insulin
C. Calcium
D. Vitamins
Answer is = B
23. Biopsy is done on
A. tissue taken from a dead body
B. tissue taken from living body
C. blood from veins
D. blood from arties
Answer is = B
24. Triple antigen vaccine is given children to protect them against
A. polio
B. whooping cough
C. tuberculosis
D. contagious diseases
Answer is = B
25. A man weighing 96 Kg consists of approximately ————-liters of water
A. 50 litters
B. 66.5 litters
C. 82 litters
D. 42 litters
Answer is = B
26. What does blood consists of?
60 % plasma, 40 % crop
65 % plasma, 40 % crop
62 % plasma, 40 % crop
68% plasma, 45 % crop
Answer is = A

Biology Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

Physics Mcqs for Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

Physics Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

1. What are primary colors?
A. Color of the rainbow
B. Color in the spectrum of the white light
C. colors which cannot be produced
D. color found in nature
Answer is = C
2. Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Total internal reflection
Answer is = D
3. Sun and the other stars are virtuously
huge nuclear explosion chambers producing
a large amount of head and light yet, we do not hear
any of the explosions because
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
C. the process involved in the interior of the sun and the starts relate to atomic and subatomic particles and not molecules and their vibration
D. the outer space is an absolute vacuum
Answer is = D
4. The advantage of AC over DC is that
A. it contain more electrical energy
B. it is free from voltage fluctuation
C. its generation coats much less
D. it can be transmitted over long distances
with minimum power loss
Answer is = D
5. What minimum escape velocity—
the speed necessary to counter earth gravity
and to break away from earth into outer—space required from a rocket to be lunched into space?
A. 5 km per second
B. 6 km per second
C.11 km per second
D.20 km per second
Answer is = C
6. Which of the following device is use to step down the voltage of alternating current?
A. induction cool
B. Transformers
C. Transistor
D. Rectifier
Answer is = B
7. The spherical shape of a small drop of a rain is due to
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. atmospheric pressure
D. gravity
Answer is = B
8. The blue color of sky can be attributed to
A. differential scattering of the sunlight by the atmosphere
B. Total internal reflection of the sunlight by the atmosphere
C. Absorption of sunlight
D. Refraction of sunlight by the atmosphere
Answer is = A
9. Which one of the following sets of properties
are relevant for an electrical fuse wire needed for normal application?
A. Thick wire, high melting point alloy, short length
B. thick wire, low melting point alloy, large length
C. Short length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
D. Large length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
Answer is = A
10. Ice floats on water because the density of Ice is less than that of water, Out of the following what part of giant icebergs remains above water?
A. 1/10
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. ¾
Answer is = B
11. Which one of the following coolers has the longest wavelength?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red
Answer is = D
12. Which one of the following can be used to focus sunlight?
A. Plan mirror
B. Concave lens
C. Concave mirror
D. Convex mirror
Answer is = C
13. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A. PVC
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. Graphite
Answer is = D
14. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Density
D. Vapour pressure
Answer is = A
15. Choke coil is coil of
A. High resistance and high inductance
B. Low resistance and high inductance
C.High resistance and low inductance
D. Low resistance and low inductance
Answer is = B
16. Conductors, insolators and semi- conductors differ from each other due to property of
A. ability of the current of carry
B. formation of crystal lattice
C. binding energy of their electrons
D. mutual width of their energy gaps
Answer is = D
17. On which principle dose the tape- recorder function?
A. Electromagnetic Induction
B. Electrovalency
C. Gay music’s law of combining volume
D. Boyle’s Law
Answer is = A
18. When a constant force is applied to a body it move with uniform
A. Momentum
B. Velocity
C. Speed
D. Acceleration
Answer is = B
19. The silvered surface of thermos flask prevents transfer of heat by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Reflection
D. Radiation
Answer is = D
20. When wind blows at high velocity roof tops are blown off because pressure
A. Outside is more than inside the roof
B. inside is more than outside the roof
C. Increases due to wind velocity
D. Is exerted by air from outside
Answer is = B
21. Tube light works on the principle of
A. Chemical effect of current
B. Heating effect of current
C. Magnetic effect of current
D. Discharge of electricity through gases
Answer is = D
22. in a refrigerator, cooling is produced by
A. The Ice is deposits on the freezer
B. The evaporation of a volatile liquid
C. The sudden expansion of a compressed gas
D. Increases stability
Answer is = B
23. On earth a removed from an electric bulb to prevent
A. Oxidation of tungsten filament
B. Bursting of bulb
C. Loss of light due to absorption
D.None of the above
Answer is = A
24. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
A. Avoid slipping
B. Increases speed
C. Reduce fatigue
D. Increases stability
Answer is = D
25. On earth a moving body ordinarily comes to rest by it self because of the
A. Law of inertia
B. Forces of friction
C. Conservation of momentum
D. Gravity
Answer is = B
26. When the door of an operating refrigerator is opened the temperature of the room will
A. Decreases
B. Remain unchanged
C. Fall down immediately
D. increases
Answer is = D
27. An electric motor is used to convert
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
B. Mechanical energy into kinetic energy
C. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
D. Higher voltage to lower voltage
Answer is = C
28. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because official
A. Potential difference between them
B. Mutual inductance between them
C. Electric forces between them
D. Magnetic forces between them
Answer is = C
29. Energy of a body due to its motion is called
A. Heat energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. potential energy
D. Light energy
Answer is = B
30. A moving ball stops due to action of
A. Nuclear forces
B. frictienal forces
C. Electric forces
D. Magnetic forces
Answer is = B
31. The energy stored in a stretched spring is
A. Potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy
Answer is = D
32. In cells chemical energy is transformed into
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy
Answer is = D
33. When body is dropped from a certain height, the gravitational potential energy is converted into
A. Elastic potential energy
B. chemical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. Light energy
Answer is = C
34. Human body converts chemical potential energy of food into
A. kinetic energy
B. Light energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. heat energy
Answer is = D
35. Electrochemical energy is required for the working of
A. Circulatory system
B. Nervous system
C. Excretory system
D. Digestive system
Answer is = B
36. When cat laps for its prey them the chemical energy presents in its muscles is converted to
A. potential energy then to light energy
B. potential energy then to kinetic energy
C.Electrical energy then to heat energy
D. Heat energy then to nuclear energy
Answer is = B
37. The energy stored in the fossil fuel is
A. chemical energy
B. heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Elastic potential energy
Answer is = A
38. Semi -conductor is such a substance, whose ability to conduct current lies in between
A. conductors and insulators
B. conductors and superconductors
C. insulators and superconductors
D. Wood and plastic
Answer is = A
39. Though the temperature inside lighted electric bulb is around 2700C, the filament dose not burn because:
A. The metal of which it is made is resistant to burning
B. the oxygen necessary for combustion (and bumming)
is not available as the bulb is evacuated and filled
with pure nitrogen or inert gases
C. it dose not burn in closed systems
D. it is made of non- metallic substance
Answer is = B
40. A remote control gadget (for TV etc.)
A. A small electromagnetic, that emits electromagnetic
B. A small oscillator that emits electric pluses
C. A small transmitter that emits infrared signals
D. None of these
Answer is = C

Physics Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist Exams

English Mcqs for Lecturer & Subject Specialist PCS Exams

English Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist PCS Exams

(ii) Joseph Andrews was written by:
(a) Richardson (b) Defoe (c) Fielding (d) Bunyan (e) None of these
(iii) Shakespeare was born in:
(a) 1570 (b) 1601 (c) 1547 (d) 1564 (e) None of these
(iv) ‘The Wheel of Fire’ a criticism was written by:
(a) Bradley (b) W. Knight (c) Hazlitt (d) Dryden (e) None of these
(v) Kubla Khan was written by:
(a) Wordsworth (b) ST. Coleridge (c) Shelley (d) Keats (e) None of these
(vi) G. B. Shaw began his literary career first as:
(a) Journalist (b) Novelist (c) Dramatist (d) Critic (e) None of these
(vii) W. B. Yeats was born in:
(a) 1914 (b) 1856 (c) 1865 (d) 1838 (e) None of these
(viii) Jane Austen’s work is transfused with the spirit of:
(a) Classicism (b) Puritanism (c) Idealism (d) Rationalism (e) None of these
(ix) The Waste Land by T. S. Eliot is an:
(a) Ode (b) Elegy (c) Allegory (d) Epic (e) None of these
(x) Waiting for Godot by S. Beckett was originally written in:
(a) Italian (b) Spanish (c) German (d) French (e) None of these
(xi) The _____ age tended to favour the taste and search for truth in art:
(a) Classical (b) Romantic (c) Victorian (d) Elizabethan (e) None of these
(xii) Maud and Inmemoriam were written by:
(a) Tennyson (b) Keats (c) Pope (d) Shelley (e) None of these
(xiii) Tennyson was born in:
(a) 1809 (b) 1798 (c) 1709 (d) 1890 (e) None of these
(iii) Extra attempt of any question or any part of the attempted question will not be
considered.
(xiv) _____ has a super abundant wealth of words and superfluous ornaments.
(a) Hyperbole (b) Metaphor (c) Rhetoric (d) Overtone (e) None of these
(xv) Keats’s aestheticism was later turned into:
(a) Romanticism (b) Pre-Raphaelitism (c) Idealism (d) Anglicanism (e) None of these
(xvi) _____ is the animating force in the work of Charlotte Bronte:
(a) Idealism (b) Romanticism (c) Lyricism (d) Radicalism (e) None of these
(xvii)
The Wilde Swans at Coole is first great collection of poems of:
(a) W. Lewis (b) Yeats (c) E. Sitwell (d) D. H. Lawrence (e) None of these
(xviii)
T. S. Eliot was born in:
(a) 1887 (b) 1888 (c) 1817 (d) 1870 (e) None of these
(xix) Jane Eyre was written by:
(a) J. Austen (b) G. Eliot (c) C. Bronte (d) Emile Bronte (e) None of these
(xx) Ophelia, Julia, Viola, Imogen are the characters created by:
(a) Richardson (b) Fielding (c) Hardy (d) Shakespeare (e) None of these

English Mcqs For Lecturer & Subject Specialist PCS Exams

Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams

Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams

(1) The greatest requirement for economic development is:
(a) To sacrifice present enjoyment for tomorrow’s benefit.
(b) Increase in National income.
(c) Invention and innovation in all productive sectors
(d) Mechanization of agriculture
(2) Per Capita output would probably rise but output per worker would fall if;
(a) Capital deepening occurred rapidly.
(b) Labour force participation rate of the population rose
(c) Technical education of the work
(d) Involuntary saving was increased
(3) Most of underdeveloped countries are agricultural with low income and needs:
(a) Increase in income of the people depends upon agriculture output.
(b) Land can be owned collectively.
(c) Land can be owned by large capitalist farmers.
(d) Land can be owned by labourers who fill it.
(4) Voluntary saving will most likely increase if:
(a) Tax rates are increased
(b) Interest rate rise
(c) Distribution of income becomes more unequal
(d) The rate of inflation increase
(5) Economic growth:
(a) Is synonymous with economic development
(b) Refers to qualitative change experienced by an economic system
(c) When an economic system acquires greater productive capacity.
(d) Always result in increased real per capita output
(6) Capital deepening:
(a) Is an increase in the ration of labour to capital
(b) Necessarily increases real per capita output
(c) Is less likely to be effective in fostering growth in rich countries than in poor countries
(d) Can occur when saving rates are zero
(7) Interest of the developed world in the development of under developed economies on:
(a) General political freedom and promotion of free societies
(b) If world is not free their freedom would be in danger
(c) They want to stop and check tyranny and aggression
(d) Developed countries need customers for their surplus production.
(8) GNP at factor cost may be best defined as:
(a) The total of goods and services produced within an economy over a given time period.
(b) The total of expenditure of consumers on domestically produced goods and services.
(c) All incomes received by residents in a country in return for factor services provided domestically and abroad.
(d) The value of total output produced domestically plus net property income from abroad minus capital consumption
(9) Which one of the following is a transfer payment in National income accounting?
(a) Educational scholarship
(b) Salaries of employees
(c) Payments for text books
(d) Payment for examination fee
(10) Which is the basic concept which underlies accelerator theory of investment?
(a) Investment depends on the level of savings
(b) Investment is inversely related to the rate of interest
(c) Investment is determined by the volume of Commercial Bank Lending
(d) Investment rises when there is an increase in the rate of growth of demand in the economy
(11) Which one of the following would cause a fall in the level of aggregate demand in the economy?
(a) A decrease in the level of imports
(b) A fall in the propensity to save
(c) A decrease in government expenditure
(d) A decrease in the level of income tax
(12) Capital formation remained very low in Pakistan due to:
(a) Low saving rate
(b) Savings are not fully invested
(c) Money and capital market are not suitable
(d) Due to high rate of inflation purchasing power is very low
(13) Efficient allocation of resources in an economy occurs whenever:
(a) Prices is equated to Marginal social cost in some units
(b) Income and wealth are distributed in a fair way
(c) There is full employment of resources
(d) The existing resource allocation cannot be changed without making it worse off.
(14) When a worker earns more than the just sufficient to keep him in his job, the excess income is called:
(a) An opportunity cost
(b) An economic rent
(c) Transfer earnings
(d) Surplus value
(15) There are 5 workers in a field and each one is paid at the rate of Rs. 200 per day. Later on raising wage rate by Rs. 50 per day to attract one more worker. If other costs remain constant, marginal input cost of employing the additional worker is:
(a) Rs. 400
(b) Rs. 45
(c) Rs. 700
(d) Rs. 300
(16) If state wishes to stimulate consumption, which one of the following measures be the most effective?
(a) Increase in aid to agriculture and industry
(b) An increase in old age pension
(c) A decrease in higher rates of income tax
(d) A decrease in personal tax allowances
(17) The incidence of tax refers to:
(a) Who economically bear the burden of the tax
(b) The canons of taxation
(c) Type of tax, direct or indirect tax
(d) Whether the tax is continuously or periodically levied.
(18) During the inflationary period, when income tax revenue rises faster than National income, this illustrates:
(a) The situation of unemployment trap.
(b) The poverty trap
(c) Fiscal boost
(d) Fiscal drag
(19) A balance of payment surplus may cause:
(a) Employment and the money supply to rise.
(b) The money supplies to fall
(c) Employment to rise and the money supply to fall
(d) Employment and the money supply to fall.
(20) Green revolution refers to:
(a) Introduction of modern technology
(b) Reform in land tenure system
(c) Introduction of agro-based industry
(d) Boosting exports of agricultural products
__________________

Mcqs Economics From Past Papers For Subject Specialist & Lecturer Exams